Text of IN HB 1520 (2025)

Introduced Version HOUSE BILL No. 1520 _____ DIGEST OF INTRODUCED BILL Citations Affected: IC 4-20.5-7-14; IC 5-22-22; IC 6-8.1-8-3; IC 9-32; IC 25-0.5; IC 25-1; IC 25-6.1; IC 25-8; IC 25-20; IC 25-21.8-4-5; IC 25-22.5-1-2; IC 25-23.6; IC 25-27.5-5; IC 25-34.1-3-2; IC 25-34.5-3-7; IC 25-35.6; IC 25-37-1-2; IC 32-29-7-1; IC 32-30-10-1; IC 34-6-2-13; IC 35-52-25; IC 36-1-11-4. Synopsis: Professional licensing. Removes the following licensing provisions: (1) hearing aid dealers; (2) auctioneers and auction companies; and (3) electrologists. Removes specific courses required for certain behavioral health licensure. Replaces specific courses required for certain behavioral health licensure with a requirement that the program be nationally accredited. Makes conforming changes. Effective: July 1, 2025. Pierce K January 21, 2025, read first time and referred to Committee on Employment, Labor and Pensions. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 Introduced First Regular Session of the 124th General Assembly (2025) PRINTING CODE. Amendments: Whenever an existing statute (or a section of the Indiana Constitution) is being amended, the text of the existing provision will appear in this style type, additions will appear in this style type, and deletions will appear in this style type. Additions: Whenever a new statutory provision is being enacted (or a new constitutional provision adopted), the text of the new provision will appear in this style type. Also, the word NEW will appear in that style type in the introductory clause of each SECTION that adds a new provision to the Indiana Code or the Indiana Constitution. Conflict reconciliation: Text in a statute in this style type or this style type reconciles conflicts between statutes enacted by the 2024 Regular Session of the General Assembly. HOUSE BILL No. 1520 A BILL FOR AN ACT to amend the Indiana Code concerning professions and occupations. Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the State of Indiana: 1 SECTION 1. IC 4-20.5-7-14 IS AMENDED TO READ AS 2 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 14. (a) As used in this 3 section, "auctioneer" refers to an auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1. 4 (b) Instead of taking bids, the department may engage an auctioneer 5 to advertise the sale and to conduct a public auction of the property. 6 (c) (b) The advertising by an auctioneer under this section must 7 include a detailed description of the property to be sold. 8 (d) (c) In addition to advertising given to the sale by an auctioneer, 9 notice of the sale must be given as required by section 12 of this 10 chapter. 11 (e) (d) The transferring agency shall pay the costs of an auction 12 conducted under this section. 13 SECTION 2. IC 5-22-22-4, AS AMENDED BY P.L.58-2018, 14 SECTION 2, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 15 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4. (a) Except as provided in subsection (b), if the 16 property to be sold is: 17 (1) one (1) item, with an estimated value of one thousand dollars 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 2 1 ($1,000) or more; or 2 (2) more than one (1) item, with an estimated total value of five 3 thousand dollars ($5,000) or more; 4 the purchasing agency may engage an auctioneer licensed under 5 IC 25-6.1 to advertise the sale and conduct a public auction. 6 (b) This subsection applies if the property to be sold is property that 7 belongs to a state agency. If the property is not to be sold under section 8 4.5 of this chapter, the commissioner of the Indiana department of 9 administration shall sell the property under this section. In engaging an 10 auctioneer under this section, the commissioner shall give preference 11 to an auctioneer to conduct the public auction who is also a resident of 12 Indiana. 13 (c) The advertising by an auctioneer under this section must include 14 a detailed description of the property to be sold. 15 (d) The purchasing agency shall pay an auctioneer who conducts a 16 sale under this section from the gross proceeds of the sale received 17 before other expenses and liens are paid. 18 SECTION 3. IC 5-22-22-4.7 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 19 1, 2025]. Sec. 4.7. (a) This section applies only if both of the following 20 apply: 21 (1) The property to be sold is property that belongs to a state 22 agency. 23 (2) The property will be sold under section 4.5 of this chapter. 24 (b) If the purchasing agency sells surplus property using an Internet 25 auction site, in addition to the requirements for an Internet auction site 26 under section 4.5 of this chapter, the purchasing agency shall give 27 preference in selection of the Internet auction site to Internet auction 28 sites owned or operated by a person licensed under IC 25-6.1. 29 SECTION 4. IC 6-8.1-8-3, AS AMENDED BY P.L.118-2024, 30 SECTION 22, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 31 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 3. (a) The county sheriff of a county shall attempt 32 to levy on and collect a judgment arising from a tax warrant in that 33 county for a period of one hundred twenty (120) days from the date the 34 judgment lien is entered, unless the sheriff is relieved of that duty at an 35 earlier time by the department. The sheriff shall also have authority to 36 attempt to levy on and collect the outstanding tax liability if the 37 taxpayer does not pay the amount demanded under section 2(b) of this 38 chapter and the taxpayer has taken an action under section 2(n) of this 39 chapter to foreclose the lien. The sheriff's authority to collect the 40 warrant exists only while the sheriff holds the tax warrant, and if the 41 sheriff surrenders the warrant to the department for any reason the 42 sheriff's authority to collect that tax warrant ceases. During the period 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 3 1 that the sheriff has the duty to collect a tax warrant, the sheriff shall 2 collect from the person owing the tax, an amount equal to the amount 3 of the judgment lien plus the accrued interest to the date of the 4 payment. Subject to subsection (b), the sheriff shall make the collection 5 by garnisheeing the person's wages and by levying on and selling any 6 interest in property or rights in any chose in action that the person has 7 in the county. The Indiana laws which provide relief for debtors by 8 exempting certain property from levy by creditors do not apply to levy 9 and sale proceedings for judgments arising from tax warrants. 10 (b) A sheriff shall sell property to satisfy a tax warrant in a manner 11 that is reasonably likely to bring the highest net proceeds from the sale 12 after deducting the expenses of the offer to sell and sale. A sheriff may 13 engage an auctioneer to advertise a sale and to conduct a public 14 auction, unless the person being levied files an objection with the clerk 15 of the circuit or superior court having the tax warrant within five (5) 16 days of the day that the sheriff informs the person of the person's right 17 to object. The advertising conducted by the auctioneer is in addition to 18 any other notice required by law, and shall include a detailed 19 description of the property to be sold. When an auctioneer is engaged 20 under this subsection and the auctioneer files a verified claim with the 21 clerk of the circuit or superior court with whom the tax warrant is filed, 22 the sheriff may pay the reasonable fee and reasonable expenses of the 23 auctioneer from the gross proceeds of the sale before other expenses 24 and the judgment arising from the tax warrant are paid. As used in this 25 section, "auctioneer" means an auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1. 26 (c) The sheriff shall deposit all amounts that the sheriff collects 27 under this section, including partial payments, into a special trust 28 account for judgments collected that arose from tax warrants. The 29 sheriff shall remit received payments through the department's direct 30 electronic interface or by using the department's electronic payment 31 sheriff portal. On the fifth and the twentieth day of each month, the 32 sheriff shall disburse the money in the tax warrant judgment lien trust 33 account in the following order: 34 (1) The sheriff shall pay the department the part of the collections 35 that represents taxes, interest, and penalties. 36 (2) The sheriff shall pay the county treasurer and the clerk of the 37 circuit or superior court the part of the collections that represents 38 their assessed costs. 39 (3) Except as provided in subdivisions (4) and (5), the sheriff 40 shall keep the part of the collections that represents the ten 41 percent (10%) collection fee added under section 2(b) of this 42 chapter. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 4 1 (4) If the sheriff has entered a salary contract under 2 IC 36-2-13-2.5, the sheriff shall deposit in the county general fund 3 the part of the collections that represents the ten percent (10%) 4 collection fee added under section 2(b) of this chapter. 5 (5) If the sheriff has not entered into a salary contract under 6 IC 36-2-13-2.5, the sheriff shall deposit in the county general fund 7 the part of the collections that: 8 (A) represents the ten percent (10%) collection fee added 9 under section 2(b) of this chapter; and 10 (B) would, if kept by the sheriff, result in the total amount of 11 the sheriff's annual compensation exceeding the maximum 12 amount allowed under IC 36-2-13-17. 13 The department shall establish the procedure for the disbursement of 14 partial payments so that the intent of this section is carried out. 15 (d) After the period described in subsection (a) has passed, the 16 sheriff shall return the tax warrant to the department. However, if the 17 department determines that: 18 (1) at the end of this period the sheriff is in the process of 19 collecting the judgment arising from a tax warrant in periodic 20 payments of sufficient size that the judgment will be fully paid 21 within one (1) year after the date the judgment was filed; and 22 (2) the sheriff's electronic data base regarding tax warrants is 23 compatible with the department's data base; 24 the sheriff may keep the tax warrant and continue collections. 25 (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 26 department may order a sheriff to return a tax warrant at any time, if the 27 department feels that action is necessary to protect the interests of the 28 state. 29 (f) This subsection applies only to the sheriff of a county having a 30 consolidated city or a second class city. In such a county, the ten 31 percent (10%) collection fee added under section 2(b) of this chapter 32 shall be divided as follows: 33 (1) Subject to subsection (g), the sheriff may retain forty thousand 34 dollars ($40,000), plus one-fifth (1/5) of any fees exceeding that 35 forty thousand dollar ($40,000) amount. 36 (2) Two-fifths (2/5) of any fees exceeding that forty thousand 37 dollar ($40,000) amount shall be deposited in the sheriff's 38 department's pension trust fund. 39 (3) Two-fifths (2/5) of any fees exceeding that forty thousand 40 dollar ($40,000) amount shall be deposited in the county general 41 fund. 42 (g) If an amount of the collection fee added under section 2(b) of 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 5 1 this chapter would, if retained by the sheriff under subsection (f)(1), 2 cause the total amount of the sheriff's annual compensation to exceed 3 the maximum amount allowed under IC 36-2-13-17, the sheriff shall 4 instead deposit the amount in the county general fund. 5 (h) Money deposited into a county general fund under subsections 6 (c)(5) and (g) must be used as follows: 7 (1) To reduce any unfunded liability of a sheriff's pension trust 8 plan established for the county's sheriff's department. 9 (2) Any amounts remaining after complying with subdivision (1) 10 must be applied to the costs incurred to operate the county's 11 sheriff's department. 12 SECTION 5. IC 9-32-2.1-3, AS ADDED BY P.L.104-2024, 13 SECTION 31, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 14 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 3. "Automobile auction company" means a person 15 whose primary business consists of arranging, managing, sponsoring, 16 advertising, hosting, carrying out, or otherwise facilitating the auction 17 of more than three (3) motor vehicles or watercraft on the basis of bids 18 by persons acting for themselves or others, within a twelve (12) month 19 period. The term includes a place of business or facilities provided by 20 an auctioneer as part of the business of the auctioneer for the purchase 21 and sale of motor vehicles or watercraft on the basis of bids by persons 22 acting for themselves or others. The term does not include a person 23 acting only as an auctioneer under IC 25-6.1-1. 24 SECTION 6. IC 9-32-11-11.5, AS AMENDED BY P.L.284-2019, 25 SECTION 34, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 26 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 11.5. (a) A person that is a licensed dealer in a 27 state other than Indiana may apply for an out-of-state dealer special 28 event permit from the secretary for a special event auction if the 29 following conditions are met: 30 (1) The event is a motor vehicle auction conducted by an 31 auctioneer. licensed under IC 25-6.1-3. 32 (2) The motor vehicles to be auctioned are: 33 (A) at least fifteen (15) years old; or 34 (B) classified as classic, collector, or antique motor vehicles 35 under rules adopted by the secretary. 36 (3) At least two hundred (200) motor vehicles will be auctioned 37 during the special event. 38 (4) The person submits an application for a special event permit 39 to the secretary not later than thirty (30) days prior to the 40 beginning date of the special event auction. 41 (5) The application for the special event permit includes the 42 following: 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 6 1 (A) Copies of licenses for all auctioneers for the special event 2 auction. 3 (B) A copy of a valid dealer's license from the other state. 4 (C) Either of the following: 5 (i) An affidavit stating that the proposed location is zoned 6 for the operation of a special event auction from the person 7 charged with enforcing a zoning ordinance, or the zoning 8 enforcement officer under IC 36-7-4 who has jurisdiction 9 over the real property where the applicant wants to operate 10 the special event auction. 11 (ii) If there is no person or officer under item (i), the 12 application must be accompanied by a statement to that 13 effect from the executive (as defined in IC 36-1-2-5) of the 14 unit in which the real property is located. 15 (6) The applicant may file the affidavit or statement under 16 subdivision (5)(C) at any time after the filing of the application. 17 However, the secretary may not issue a special event auction 18 permit until the applicant files the affidavit or the statement. 19 (7) The affidavit or statement may not be signed by a person 20 described in subdivision (5)(C)(i) or the executive of a unit more 21 than ninety (90) days before the affidavit or statement is 22 submitted to the secretary as part of an application for a permit 23 under this section. 24 (b) Not more than one (1) special event auction permit may be 25 issued by the secretary to the same applicant within a twelve (12) 26 month period. 27 (c) If the application for the special event permit is approved, the 28 dealer must submit a fee of five hundred dollars ($500). The secretary 29 shall retain the fee. 30 SECTION 7. IC 9-32-11-18, AS AMENDED BY P.L.284-2019, 31 SECTION 35, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 32 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 18. (a) A person licensed under this article shall 33 be issued a special event permit from the secretary for a special event 34 that meets the following conditions: 35 (1) The event is a motor vehicle auction conducted by 36 auctioneers. licensed under IC 25-6.1-3. 37 (2) The motor vehicles to be auctioned are: 38 (A) at least fifteen (15) years old; or 39 (B) classified as classic, collector, or antique motor vehicles 40 under rules adopted by the secretary. 41 (3) At least one hundred (100) motor vehicles will be auctioned 42 during the special event. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 7 1 (4) The licensee submits to the secretary an application for a 2 special event permit not later than thirty (30) days before the 3 beginning date of the special event. 4 (5) The application under subdivision (4) includes the following: 5 (A) An affidavit stating that the proposed location is zoned for the operation of a special event auction from: 6 7 (i) the person charged with enforcing a zoning ordinance; or 8 (ii) a zoning enforcement officer under IC 36-7-4; 9 who has jurisdiction over the real property where the applicant 10 wants to operate the special event auction. 11 (B) A fee of two hundred fifty dollars ($250). The fee shall be 12 deposited as set forth in IC 9-32-7-3. 13 (b) If there is no person or officer under subsection (a)(5)(A), the 14 application must be accompanied by a statement to that effect from the 15 executive (as defined in IC 36-1-2-5) of the unit in which the real 16 property is located. 17 (c) The applicant may file the affidavit or statement at any time after 18 the filing of the application. However, the secretary may not issue a 19 special event auction permit until the applicant files the affidavit or 20 statement. 21 (d) The affidavit or statement may not be signed by a person 22 described in subsection (a)(5)(A) or the executive of a unit described 23 in subsection (b) more than ninety (90) days before the affidavit or 24 statement is submitted to the secretary as part of an application for a 25 permit under this section. 26 (e) Not more than two (2) special event permits may be issued by 27 the secretary to the same applicant within a twelve (12) month period. 28 SECTION 8. IC 25-0.5-4-5 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 29 2025]. Sec. 5. The Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 25-6.1-2-1) is a 30 board under IC 25-1-4. 31 SECTION 9. IC 25-0.5-4-13 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 32 1, 2025]. Sec. 13. The committee of hearing aid dealer examiners (IC 33 25-20-1-1.5) is a board under IC 25-1-4. 34 SECTION 10. IC 25-0.5-5-13 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 35 1, 2025]. Sec. 13. The Indiana professional licensing agency shall 36 perform administrative functions, duties, and responsibilities for the 37 committee of hearing aid dealer examiners (IC 25-20) under 38 IC 25-1-5-3(a). 39 SECTION 11. IC 25-0.5-7-4 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 40 1, 2025]. Sec. 4. The Indiana professional licensing agency shall 41 perform administrative functions, duties, and responsibilities for the 42 Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 25-6.1-2-1) under IC 25-1-6-3(a). 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 8 1 SECTION 12. IC 25-0.5-8-4 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 2 1, 2025]. Sec. 4. An occupation for which a person is licensed, 3 certified, or registered by the Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 4 25-6.1-2-1) is a regulated occupation under IC 25-1-7. 5 SECTION 13. IC 25-0.5-9-4 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 6 1, 2025]. Sec. 4. The Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 25-6.1-2-1) 7 is a board under IC 25-1-8. 8 SECTION 14. IC 25-0.5-10-5 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 9 1, 2025]. Sec. 5. The Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 25-6.1-2-1) 10 is a board under IC 25-1-8-6. 11 SECTION 15. IC 25-0.5-10-13 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 12 1, 2025]. Sec. 13. The committee of hearing aid dealer examiners (IC 13 25-20-1-1.5) is a board under IC 25-1-8-6. 14 SECTION 16. IC 25-0.5-12-4 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 15 1, 2025]. Sec. 4. The Indiana auctioneer commission (IC 25-6.1-2) is 16 a board under IC 25-1-11. 17 SECTION 17. IC 25-1-9-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.36-2022, 18 SECTION 5, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 19 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) As used in this chapter, "practitioner" means 20 an individual who holds: 21 (1) an unlimited license, certificate, or registration; 22 (2) a limited or probationary license, certificate, or registration; 23 (3) a temporary license, certificate, registration, or permit; 24 (4) an intern permit; or 25 (5) a provisional license; 26 issued by the board regulating the profession in question. including a 27 certificate of registration issued under IC 25-20. 28 (b) The term includes an individual who held: 29 (1) an unlimited license, certificate, or registration; 30 (2) a limited or probationary license, certificate, or registration; 31 (3) a temporary license, certificate, registration, or permit; 32 (4) an intern permit; or 33 (5) a provisional license; 34 issued by the board regulating the profession in question, including a 35 certificate of registration issued under IC 25-20, when the alleged 36 violation of this chapter occurred. 37 SECTION 18. IC 25-1-10.3-5, AS ADDED BY P.L.128-2022, 38 SECTION 1, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 39 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 5. (a) As used in this chapter, except as provided 40 in subsection (b), "practitioner" means an individual who holds a 41 license issued by a board described in IC 25-0.5-11. including a 42 certificate of registration issued under IC 25-20. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 9 1 (b) The term does not include a veterinarian licensed under 2 IC 25-38.1. 3 SECTION 19. IC 25-1-11-7 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 4 2025]. Sec. 7. A practitioner licensed to practice auctioneering is 5 subject to the disciplinary sanctions under section 12 of this chapter if, 6 after a hearing, the board finds that the practitioner has failed to: 7 (1) account and to make payment under IC 25-6.1-6-2; or 8 (2) keep the funds of others separate from the practitioner's own 9 private accounts. 10 SECTION 20. IC 25-6.1 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 11 2025]. (Auctioneers and Auctions). 12 SECTION 21. IC 25-8-2-2.6, AS AMENDED BY P.L.170-2013, 13 SECTION 5, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 14 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2.6. "Beauty culture professional" refers to the 15 following: 16 (1) A cosmetologist licensed under IC 25-8-9. 17 (2) An electrologist licensed under IC 25-8-10. 18 (3) (2) A manicurist licensed under IC 25-8-11. 19 (4) (3) An esthetician licensed under IC 25-8-12.5. 20 (5) (4) An instructor licensed under IC 25-8-6. 21 (6) (5) A beauty culturist licensed under IC 25-8-12.1. 22 SECTION 22. IC 25-8-2-9 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 23 2025]. Sec. 9. "Electrologist" means a person licensed under 24 IC 25-8-10 to provide electrolysis. 25 SECTION 23. IC 25-8-3-5, AS AMENDED BY P.L.249-2019, 26 SECTION 57, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 27 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 5. (a) Each of the members of the board must 28 reside in Indiana. 29 (b) Subject to IC 25-1-6.5-3, the members of the board must meet 30 the following qualifications: 31 (1) Two (2) of the members must: 32 (A) possess a current cosmetologist license; and 33 (B) have practiced cosmetology in Indiana continuously for at 34 least five (5) years immediately before appointment. 35 (2) Two (2) of the members of the board must: 36 (A) possess a current barber license; and 37 (B) have practiced barbering in Indiana continuously for at 38 least five (5) years immediately before appointment. 39 (3) One (1) of the members must be an owner or operator of a 40 beauty culture school. However, the member may not be a 41 licensed barber or cosmetologist. 42 (4) One (1) of the members must be licensed as an electrologist, 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 10 1 an esthetician or a manicurist. 2 (5) One (1) of the members must not have any association with 3 the practice of beauty culture, except as a consumer. 4 SECTION 24. IC 25-8-4-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.84-2010, 5 SECTION 38, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 6 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) If the board determines that: 7 (1) a person possesses a valid license from another jurisdiction to 8 perform acts that require a license under this article; and 9 (2) the jurisdiction issuing the license imposes substantially equal 10 requirements on applicants for the license as are imposed on 11 applicants for an Indiana license; 12 the board may issue a license to perform those acts in Indiana to that 13 person upon payment of the fee required under IC 25-8-13. 14 (b) This subsection applies only to applications for a cosmetologist 15 license under IC 25-8-9. If the jurisdiction issuing the license does not 16 impose substantially equal requirements for education hours as 17 required under subsection (a)(2), the board may approve the 18 combination of education hours plus actual licensed practice in the 19 other jurisdiction when issuing a license to a person from that 20 jurisdiction. One (1) year of licensed practice is equal to one hundred 21 (100) hours of education to an applicant who has completed a 22 minimum of one thousand (1,000) hours of education. 23 (c) This subsection applies only to applications for a manicurist 24 license under IC 25-8-11. If the jurisdiction issuing a license does not 25 impose substantially equal requirements for education hours as 26 required under subsection (a)(2), the board may approve the 27 combination of education hours plus actual licensed practice in the 28 other jurisdiction when issuing a license to a person from that 29 jurisdiction, as follows: 30 (1) For an applicant with less than twenty (20) years of actual 31 licensed practice as a manicurist, one (1) year of licensed practice 32 is equal to one hundred (100) hours of education to an applicant 33 who has completed at least three hundred (300) hours of 34 education. 35 (2) For an applicant with twenty (20) or more years of actual 36 licensed practice as a manicurist, one (1) year of licensed practice 37 is equal to one hundred (100) hours of education to an applicant 38 who has completed at least one hundred (100) hours of education. 39 (d) This subsection applies only to applications for an electrologist 40 license under IC 25-8-10. If the jurisdiction issuing a license does not 41 impose substantially equal requirements for education hours as 42 required under subsection (a)(2), the board may approve the 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 11 1 combination of education hours plus actual licensed practice in the 2 other jurisdiction when issuing a license to a person from that 3 jurisdiction. One (1) year of licensed practice as an electrologist is 4 equal to one hundred (100) hours of education to an applicant who has 5 completed at least two hundred (200) hours of education. 6 (e) (d) This subsection applies only to applications for an esthetician 7 license under IC 25-8-12.5. If the jurisdiction issuing a license does not 8 impose substantially equal requirements for education hours as 9 required under subsection (a)(2), the board may approve the 10 combination of education hours plus actual licensed practice in the 11 other jurisdiction when issuing a license to a person from that 12 jurisdiction. One (1) year of licensed practice as an esthetician is equal 13 to one hundred (100) hours of education to an applicant who has 14 completed at least four hundred (400) hours of education. 15 (f) (e) This subsection applies only to applications for a beauty 16 culture instructor license under IC 25-8-6. If the jurisdiction issuing a 17 license does not impose substantially equal requirements for education 18 hours as required under subsection (a)(2), the board may approve the 19 combination of education hours plus actual licensed practice in the 20 other jurisdiction when issuing a license to a person from that 21 jurisdiction. One (1) year of licensed practice as a beauty culture 22 instructor is equal to one hundred (100) hours of education to an 23 applicant who has completed at least seven hundred (700) hours of 24 education. 25 (g) (f) This subsection applies only to applications for a barber 26 license under IC 25-8-12.1. If the jurisdiction issuing the license does 27 not impose substantially equivalent requirements as required under 28 subsection (a)(2), the board may approve a combination of education 29 hours plus actual licensed practice in the other jurisdiction when 30 issuing a license to a person from that jurisdiction. One (1) year of 31 licensed practice is equal to one hundred (100) hours of education to 32 an applicant who has completed at least one thousand (1,000) hours of 33 education. 34 SECTION 25. IC 25-8-6-3, AS AMENDED BY P.L.170-2013, 35 SECTION 41, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 36 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 3. The application described in section 2 of this 37 chapter must state that the applicant: 38 (1) is at least eighteen (18) years of age; 39 (2) has graduated from high school or received the equivalent of 40 a high school education; 41 (3) holds a cosmetologist, an electrologist, a manicurist, a barber, 42 or an esthetician license issued under this article; 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 12 1 (4) has completed the education and experience requirements 2 subject to the rules adopted by the board; 3 (5) has not committed an act for which the applicant could be 4 disciplined under IC 25-8-14; 5 (6) has received a satisfactory grade (as described in IC 25-8-4-9) 6 on an examination for instructor license applicants prescribed by 7 the board; and 8 (7) has paid the fee set forth in IC 25-8-13-4 for the issuance of a 9 license under this chapter. 10 SECTION 26. IC 25-8-6-6, AS AMENDED BY P.L.170-2013, 11 SECTION 44, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 12 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 6. A person who obtains an instructor license may 13 provide instruction in the following: 14 (1) Cosmetology, if the person holds a cosmetologist license 15 under IC 25-8-9. 16 (2) Electrology, if the person holds an electrologist license under 17 IC 25-8-10. 18 (3) (2) Manicuring, if the person holds a manicurist license under 19 IC 25-8-11. 20 (4) (3) Esthetics, if the person holds an esthetician license under 21 IC 25-8-12.5. 22 (5) (4) Barbering, if the person holds a barber license under 23 IC 25-8-12.1. 24 SECTION 27. IC 25-8-10 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 25 2025]. (Electrologist Licenses). 26 SECTION 28. IC 25-8-13-8 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 27 2025]. Sec. 8. (a) The board shall charge a fee established by the board 28 under IC 25-1-8-2 for providing an examination to an applicant for an 29 electrologist license. 30 (b) The board shall charge a fee established by the board under 31 IC 25-1-8-2 for issuing or renewing an electrologist license. 32 IC 25-1-2-6(e) applies to the issuance and renewal of an electrologist 33 license. 34 (c) The board shall charge a fee established under IC 25-1-8-6 for 35 reinstating an electrologist license. 36 (d) The board shall charge a fee established by the board under 37 IC 25-1-8-2 for issuing a license to a person who holds an electrologist 38 license from another jurisdiction that meets the requirements under 39 IC 25-8-4-2. 40 SECTION 29. IC 25-8-14-6, AS AMENDED BY P.L.170-2013, 41 SECTION 86, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 42 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 6. (a) A person who: 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 13 1 (1) is a cosmetologist, a manicurist, an electrologist, an 2 esthetician, a barber, or an instructor; and 3 (2) knowingly performs any act authorized by a license issued 4 under this article while the person has an infectious, a contagious, 5 or a communicable disease that has been epidemiologically 6 demonstrated to be transmitted through casual contact; 7 commits a Class C infraction. 8 (b) A person who knowingly attends a beauty culture school as a 9 student while the person has an infectious, a contagious, or a 10 communicable disease that has been epidemiologically demonstrated 11 to be transmitted through casual contact commits a Class C infraction. 12 SECTION 30. IC 25-20 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 13 2025]. (Hearing Aid Dealers). 14 SECTION 31. IC 25-21.8-4-5, AS ADDED BY P.L.267-2017, 15 SECTION 16, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 16 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 5. This article does not prohibit the following: 17 (1) An individual who has a license, registration, certificate, or 18 permit from the state from acting within the scope of the 19 individual's license, registration, certificate, or permit. 20 (2) An individual who participates in an approved training 21 program for the purpose of acquiring a license, registration, 22 certificate, or permit from the state from performing activities 23 within the scope of the approved training program. 24 (3) A student of an approved massage therapy school from 25 performing massage therapy under the supervision of the 26 approved massage therapy school, if the student does not profess 27 to be a licensed massage therapist. 28 (4) An individual's practice in one (1) or more of the following 29 areas that does not involve intentional soft tissue manipulation: 30 (A) Alexander Technique. 31 (B) Feldenkrais. 32 (C) Reiki. 33 (D) Therapeutic Touch. 34 (5) An individual's practice in which the individual provides 35 service marked bodywork approaches that involve intentional soft 36 tissue manipulation, including: 37 (A) Rolfing; 38 (B) Trager Approach; 39 (C) Polarity Therapy; 40 (D) Ortho-bionomy; and 41 (E) Reflexology; 42 if the individual is approved by a governing body based on a 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 14 1 minimum level of training, demonstration of competency, and 2 adherence to ethical standards. 3 (6) The practice of massage therapy by a person either actively 4 licensed as a massage therapist in another state or currently 5 certified by the National Certification Board of Therapeutic 6 Massage and Bodywork or other national certifying body if the 7 person's state does not license massage therapists, if the 8 individual is performing duties for a non-Indiana based team or 9 organization, or for a national athletic event held in Indiana, so 10 long as the individual restricts the individual's practice to the 11 individual's team or organization during the course of the 12 individual's or the individual's team's or the individual's 13 organization's stay in Indiana or for the duration of the event. 14 (7) Massage therapists from other states or countries providing 15 educational programs in Indiana for a period not to exceed thirty 16 (30) days within a calendar year. 17 (8) An employee of a physician or a group of physicians from 18 performing an act, a duty, or a function to which the exception 19 described in IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(20) IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(19) applies. 20 (9) An employee of a chiropractor from performing an act, duty, 21 or function authorized under IC 25-10-1-13. 22 (10) An employee of a podiatrist or a group of podiatrists from 23 performing an act, duty, or function to which the exception 24 described in IC 25-29-1-0.5(a)(13) applies. 25 (11) A dramatic portrayal or some other artistic performance or 26 expression involving the practice of massage therapy. 27 (12) The practice of massage therapy by a member of an 28 emergency response team during a period of active emergency 29 response. 30 SECTION 32. IC 25-22.5-1-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.128-2022, 31 SECTION 3, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 32 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) This article, as it relates to the unlawful or 33 unauthorized practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine, does not 34 apply to any of the following: 35 (1) A student in training in a medical school approved by the 36 board, or while performing duties as an intern or a resident in a 37 hospital under the supervision of the hospital's staff or in a 38 program approved by the medical school. 39 (2) A person who renders service in case of emergency where no 40 fee or other consideration is contemplated, charged, or received. 41 (3) A paramedic (as defined in IC 16-18-2-266), an advanced 42 emergency medical technician (as defined in IC 16-18-2-6.5), an 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 15 1 emergency medical technician (as defined in IC 16-18-2-112), or 2 a person with equivalent certification from another state who 3 renders advanced life support (as defined in IC 16-18-2-7), or 4 basic life support (as defined in IC 16-18-2-33.5): 5 (A) during a disaster emergency declared by the governor 6 under IC 10-14-3-12 in response to an act that the governor in 7 good faith believes to be an act of terrorism (as defined in 8 IC 35-31.5-2-329); and 9 (B) in accordance with the rules adopted by the Indiana 10 emergency medical services commission or the disaster 11 emergency declaration of the governor. 12 (4) Commissioned medical officers or medical service officers of 13 the armed forces of the United States, the United States Public 14 Health Service, and medical officers of the United States 15 Department of Veterans Affairs in the discharge of their official 16 duties in Indiana. 17 (5) An individual who is not a licensee who resides in another 18 state or country and is authorized to practice medicine or 19 osteopathic medicine there, who is called in for consultation by an 20 individual licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine 21 in Indiana. 22 (6) A person administering a domestic or family remedy to a 23 member of the person's family. 24 (7) A member of a church practicing the religious tenets of the 25 church if the member does not make a medical diagnosis, 26 prescribe or administer drugs or medicines, perform surgical or 27 physical operations, or assume the title of or profess to be a 28 physician. 29 (8) A school corporation and a school employee who acts under 30 IC 34-30-14 (or IC 34-4-16.5-3.5 before its repeal). 31 (9) A chiropractor practicing the chiropractor's profession under 32 IC 25-10 or to an employee of a chiropractor acting under the 33 direction and supervision of the chiropractor under IC 25-10-1-13. 34 (10) A dental hygienist practicing the dental hygienist's profession 35 under IC 25-13. 36 (11) A dentist practicing the dentist's profession under IC 25-14. 37 (12) A hearing aid dealer practicing the hearing aid dealer's 38 profession under IC 25-20. 39 (13) (12) A nurse practicing the nurse's profession under 40 IC 25-23. However, a certified registered nurse anesthetist (as 41 defined in IC 25-23-1-1.4) may administer anesthesia if the 42 certified registered nurse anesthetist acts under the direction of 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 16 1 and in the immediate presence of a physician. 2 (14) (13) An optometrist practicing the optometrist's profession 3 under IC 25-24. 4 (15) (14) A pharmacist practicing the pharmacist's profession 5 under IC 25-26. 6 (16) (15) A physical therapist practicing the physical therapist's 7 profession under IC 25-27. 8 (17) (16) A podiatrist practicing the podiatrist's profession under 9 IC 25-29. 10 (18) (17) A psychologist practicing the psychologist's profession 11 under IC 25-33. 12 (19) (18) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist practicing 13 the pathologist's or audiologist's profession under IC 25-35.6. 14 (20) (19) An employee of a physician or group of physicians who 15 performs an act, a duty, or a function that is customarily within 16 the specific area of practice of the employing physician or group 17 of physicians, if the act, duty, or function is performed under the 18 direction and supervision of the employing physician or a 19 physician of the employing group within whose area of practice 20 the act, duty, or function falls. An employee may not make a 21 diagnosis or prescribe a treatment and must report the results of 22 an examination of a patient conducted by the employee to the 23 employing physician or the physician of the employing group 24 under whose supervision the employee is working. An employee 25 may not administer medication without the specific order of the 26 employing physician or a physician of the employing group. 27 Unless an employee is licensed or registered to independently 28 practice in a profession described in subdivisions (9) through (18) 29 (17), nothing in this subsection grants the employee independent 30 practitioner status or the authority to perform patient services in 31 an independent practice in a profession. 32 (21) (20) A hospital licensed under IC 16-21 or IC 12-25. 33 (22) (21) A health care organization whose members, 34 shareholders, or partners are individuals, partnerships, 35 corporations, facilities, or institutions licensed or legally 36 authorized by this state to provide health care or professional 37 services as: 38 (A) a physician; 39 (B) a psychiatric hospital; 40 (C) a hospital; 41 (D) a health maintenance organization or limited service 42 health maintenance organization; 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 17 1 (E) a health facility; 2 (F) a dentist; 3 (G) a registered or licensed practical nurse; 4 (H) a certified nurse midwife or a certified direct entry 5 midwife; 6 (I) an optometrist; 7 (J) a podiatrist; 8 (K) a chiropractor; 9 (L) a physical therapist; or 10 (M) a psychologist. 11 (23) (22) A physician assistant practicing the physician assistant 12 profession under IC 25-27.5. 13 (24) (23) A physician providing medical treatment under section 14 2.1 of this chapter. 15 (25) (24) An attendant who provides attendant care services (as 16 defined in IC 16-18-2-28.5). 17 (26) (25) A personal services attendant providing authorized 18 attendant care services under IC 12-10-17.1. 19 (27) (26) A respiratory care practitioner practicing the 20 practitioner's profession under IC 25-34.5. 21 (b) A person described in subsection (a)(9) through (a)(18) (a)(17) 22 is not excluded from the application of this article if: 23 (1) the person performs an act that an Indiana statute does not 24 authorize the person to perform; and 25 (2) the act qualifies in whole or in part as the practice of medicine 26 or osteopathic medicine. 27 (c) An employment or other contractual relationship between an 28 entity described in subsection (a)(21) (a)(20) through (a)(22) (a)(21) 29 and a licensed physician does not constitute the unlawful practice of 30 medicine or osteopathic medicine under this article if the entity does 31 not direct or control independent medical acts, decisions, or judgment 32 of the licensed physician. However, if the direction or control is done 33 by the entity under IC 34-30-15 (or IC 34-4-12.6 before its repeal), the 34 entity is excluded from the application of this article as it relates to the 35 unlawful practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine. 36 (d) This subsection does not apply to a prescription or drug order for 37 a legend drug that is filled or refilled in a pharmacy owned or operated 38 by a hospital licensed under IC 16-21. A physician licensed in Indiana 39 who permits or authorizes a person to fill or refill a prescription or drug 40 order for a legend drug except as authorized in IC 16-42-19-11 through 41 IC 16-42-19-19 is subject to disciplinary action under IC 25-1-9. A 42 person who violates this subsection commits the unlawful practice of 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 18 1 medicine or osteopathic medicine under this chapter. 2 (e) A person described in subsection (a)(8) shall not be authorized 3 to dispense contraceptives or birth control devices. 4 (f) Nothing in this section allows a person to use words or 5 abbreviations that indicate or induce an individual to believe that the 6 person is engaged in the practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine. 7 SECTION 33. IC 25-23.6-8-2.5, AS AMENDED BY P.L.15-2023, 8 SECTION 1, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 9 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2.5. (a) An applicant for a license as a marriage 10 and family therapist under section 1 of this chapter or an applicant for 11 a license as a marriage and family therapist associate under section 1.5 12 of this chapter must complete the following educational requirements: 13 (1) Except as provided in subsection (b), Graduate course work 14 that must include graduate level course credits from a program 15 accredited through the Commission on Accreditation for 16 Marriage and Therapy Education. with material in at least the 17 following content areas: 18 (A) Theoretical foundations of marriage and family therapy. 19 (B) Major models of marriage and family therapy. 20 (C) Individual development. 21 (D) Family development and family relationships. 22 (E) Clinical problems. 23 (F) Collaboration with other disciplines. 24 (G) Sexuality. 25 (H) Gender and sexual orientation. 26 (I) Issues of ethnicity, race, socioeconomic status, and culture. 27 (J) Therapy techniques. 28 (K) Behavioral research that focuses on the interpretation and 29 application of research data as it applies to clinical practice. 30 The content areas may be combined into any one (1) graduate 31 level course. 32 (2) Graduate course work in the following areas: 33 (A) Legal, ethical, and professional standards issues in the 34 practice of marriage and family therapy or an equivalent 35 course approved by the board. 36 (B) Appraisal and assessment for individual or interpersonal 37 disorder or dysfunction. 38 (3) At least one (1) supervised clinical practicum, internship, or 39 field experience in a marriage and family counseling setting that 40 meets the following requirements: 41 (A) The applicant provided during at least twelve (12) months 42 of clinical practice, at least three hundred (300) face to face 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 19 1 client contact hours, of which at least one hundred (100) hours 2 must be relational, under the supervision of a licensed 3 marriage and family therapist who has at least five (5) years of 4 experience or a qualified supervisor approved by the board. 5 (B) The applicant received one hundred (100) hours of 6 supervision from a licensed marriage and family therapist who 7 has at least five (5) years experience as a qualified supervisor. 8 The requirements under clauses (A) and (B) may be met by a 9 supervised practice experience that took place away from an 10 institution of higher education but that is certified by an official 11 of the eligible postsecondary educational institution as being 12 equivalent to a graduate level practicum or internship program at 13 an institution accredited by an accrediting agency approved by the 14 United States Department of Education Commission on 15 Recognition of Postsecondary Education, the Association of 16 Universities and Colleges of Canada, or the Commission on 17 Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy Education. 18 (b) The following graduate work may not be used to satisfy the 19 content area requirements under subsection (a): 20 (1) Thesis or dissertation work. 21 (2) Practicums, internships, or fieldwork. 22 SECTION 34. IC 25-23.6-8.5-3, AS AMENDED BY P.L.149-2022, 23 SECTION 7, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 24 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 3. An applicant as a mental health counselor 25 under section 1 of this chapter or a mental health counselor associate 26 under section 1.5 of this chapter must complete the following 27 educational requirements: 28 (1) Graduate course work in counseling from a program 29 accredited through the Council for Accreditation of 30 Counseling and Related Educational Programs. that must 31 include either a master's degree or a doctor's degree in counseling. 32 The graduate course work must include the following content 33 areas: 34 (A) Human growth and development. 35 (B) Social and cultural foundations of counseling. 36 (C) Helping relationship, including counseling theory and 37 practice. 38 (D) Group dynamics, processes, counseling, and consultation. 39 (E) Lifestyle and career development. 40 (F) Assessment and appraisal of individuals. 41 (G) Research and program evaluation. 42 (H) Professional orientation and ethics. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 20 1 (I) Foundations of mental health counseling. 2 (J) Contextual dimensions of mental health counseling. 3 (K) Knowledge and skills for the practice of mental health 4 counseling and psychotherapy. 5 (L) Clinical instruction. 6 (2) Not less than one (1) supervised clinical practicum, internship, 7 or field experience in a counseling setting, which must include a 8 minimum of seven hundred (700) clock hours consisting of one 9 (1) practicum of one hundred (100) hours, and one (1) internship 10 of six hundred (600) hours with at least sixty-six (66) hours of 11 face to face supervision. This requirement may be met by a 12 supervised practice experience that took place away from an 13 eligible postsecondary educational institution but that is certified 14 by an official of the eligible postsecondary educational institution 15 as being equivalent to a clinical mental health graduate level 16 practicum or internship program at an institution accredited by an 17 accrediting agency approved by the United States Department of 18 Education or the Association of Universities and Colleges of 19 Canada. 20 SECTION 35. IC 25-23.6-10.5-1, AS AMENDED BY 21 P.L.142-2020, SECTION 28, IS AMENDED TO READ AS 22 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. An individual who 23 applies for a license as an addiction counselor must meet the following 24 requirements: 25 (1) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 26 has: 27 (A) received a baccalaureate or higher degree in addiction 28 counseling or in a related area as determined by the board 29 from: 30 (i) an eligible postsecondary educational institution that 31 meets the requirements under section 3(1) 3(1)(A) of this 32 chapter; or 33 (ii) a foreign school that has a program of study that meets 34 the requirements under section 3(2) or 3(3) 3(1)(B) or 35 3(1)(C) of this chapter; and 36 (B) completed the educational requirements under section 5 of 37 this chapter; and 38 (C) (B) completed the experience requirements under section 39 7 of this chapter. 40 (2) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 41 does not have a: 42 (A) conviction for a crime of violence (as defined in 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 21 1 IC 35-50-1-2); or 2 (B) conviction in the previous two (2) years that has a direct 3 bearing on the individual's ability to practice competently. 4 (3) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 5 has not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a licensing or 6 certification agency of another state or jurisdiction on the grounds 7 that the individual was not able to practice as an addiction 8 counselor without endangering the public. 9 (4) Pass an examination established by the board. 10 (5) Pay the fee established by the board. 11 SECTION 36. IC 25-23.6-10.5-1.5, AS AMENDED BY 12 P.L.142-2020, SECTION 29, IS AMENDED TO READ AS 13 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1.5. (a) An individual 14 who applies for a license as an addiction counselor associate must meet 15 the following requirements: 16 (1) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 17 has 18 (A) received a baccalaureate or higher degree in addiction 19 counseling, or in a related area as determined by the board 20 from: 21 (i) (A) an eligible postsecondary educational institution that 22 meets the requirement under section 3(1) 3(1)(A) of this 23 chapter; or 24 (ii) (B) a foreign school that has a program of study that 25 meets the requirement under section 3(2) or 3(3) 3(1)(B) or 26 3(1)(C) of this chapter. and 27 (B) completed the educational requirements under section 5 of 28 this chapter. 29 (2) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 30 does not have a: 31 (A) conviction for a crime of violence (as defined in 32 IC 35-50-1-2); or 33 (B) conviction in the previous two (2) years that has a direct 34 bearing on the individual's ability to practice competently. 35 (3) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 36 has not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a licensing or 37 certification agency of another state or jurisdiction on the grounds 38 that the individual was not able to practice as an addiction 39 counselor associate without endangering the public. 40 (4) Pass an examination established by the board. 41 (5) Pay the fee established by the board. 42 (b) The board shall issue an associate temporary permit to practice 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 22 1 addiction counseling or clinical addiction counseling to an individual 2 who: 3 (1) meets the educational requirements for a license as an 4 addiction counselor or clinical addiction counselor; 5 (2) is pursuing the required clinical supervisory hours for a 6 license as an addiction counselor or clinical addiction counselor; 7 and 8 (3) pays a fee for the temporary permit set by the board. 9 An associate temporary permit issued under this subsection expires one 10 (1) year after the date the permit is issued, without regard to the 11 number of times the individual passes or fails the required examination 12 to become a licensed addiction counselor or clinical addiction 13 counselor. The temporary permit may not be renewed. 14 SECTION 37. IC 25-23.6-10.5-2, AS AMENDED BY 15 P.L.142-2020, SECTION 30, IS AMENDED TO READ AS 16 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. An individual who 17 applies for a license as a clinical addiction counselor must meet the 18 following requirements: 19 (1) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 20 has: 21 (A) received a master's or doctor's degree in addiction 22 counseling, addiction therapy, or a related area as determined 23 by the board from an eligible postsecondary educational 24 institution that meets the requirements under section 4(a)(1) 25 4(a)(1)(A) of this chapter or from a foreign school that has a 26 program of study that meets the requirements under section 27 4(a)(2) or 4(a)(3) 4(a)(1)(B) or 4(a)(1)(C) of this chapter; and 28 (B) completed the educational requirements under section 6 of 29 this chapter; and 30 (C) (B) completed the experience requirements under section 31 8 of this chapter. 32 (2) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 33 does not have a: 34 (A) conviction for a crime of violence (as defined in 35 IC 35-50-1-2); or 36 (B) conviction in the previous two (2) years that has a direct 37 bearing on the individual's ability to practice competently. 38 (3) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 39 has not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a licensing or 40 certification agency of another state or jurisdiction on the grounds 41 that the individual was not able to practice as a clinical addiction 42 counselor without endangering the public. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 23 1 (4) Pass an examination established by the board. 2 (5) Pay the fee established by the board. 3 SECTION 38. IC 25-23.6-10.5-2.5, AS AMENDED BY 4 P.L.142-2020, SECTION 31, IS AMENDED TO READ AS 5 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2.5. An individual who 6 applies for a license as a clinical addiction counselor associate must 7 meet the following requirements: 8 (1) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 9 has 10 (A) received a master's or doctor's degree in addiction 11 counseling, or in a related area as determined by the board 12 from: 13 (i) (A) an eligible postsecondary educational institution that 14 meets the requirements under section 4(a)(1) 4(a)(1)(A) of 15 this chapter; or 16 (ii) (B) a foreign school that has a program of study that 17 meets the requirements under section 4(a)(1)(B) or 18 4(a)(1)(C) of this chapter. and 19 (B) completed the education requirements under section 6 of 20 this chapter. 21 (2) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 22 does not have a: 23 (A) conviction for a crime of violence (as defined in 24 IC 35-50-1-2); or 25 (B) conviction in the previous two (2) years that has a direct 26 bearing on the individual's ability to practice competently. 27 (3) Furnish satisfactory evidence to the board that the individual 28 has not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a licensing or 29 certification agency of another state or jurisdiction on the grounds 30 that the individual was not able to practice as a clinical addiction 31 counselor associate without endangering the public. 32 (4) Pass an examination established by the board. 33 (5) Pay the fee established by the board. 34 SECTION 39. IC 25-23.6-10.5-3, AS ADDED BY P.L.122-2009, 35 SECTION 29, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 36 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 3. An applicant under section 1 of this chapter 37 must satisfy the following: 38 (1) Have a baccalaureate or higher degree in addiction counseling 39 or in a related area as determined by the board from an eligible 40 postsecondary educational institution that meets the following 41 requirements: 42 (1) (A) If the institution is located in the United States or a 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 24 1 territory of the United States, at the time of the applicant's 2 graduation the institution was accredited by a regional 3 accrediting body recognized by the Commission on 4 Recognition of Postsecondary Accreditation. 5 (2) (B) If the institution is located in Canada, at the time of the 6 applicant's graduation the institution was a member in good 7 standing with the Association of Universities and Colleges of 8 Canada. 9 (3) (C) If the institution is located in a foreign country other 10 than Canada, at the time of the applicant's graduation the 11 institution: 12 (A) (i) was recognized by the government of the country 13 where the school was located as a program to train in the 14 practice of addiction counseling; and 15 (B) (ii) maintained a standard of training substantially 16 equivalent to the standards of institutions accredited by a 17 regional accrediting body recognized by the Commission on 18 Recognition of Postsecondary Accreditation. 19 (2) Complete at least one (1) supervised practicum, internship, 20 or field experience in an addiction counseling setting that 21 requires the applicant to provide at least three hundred fifty 22 (350) hours of addiction counseling services. 23 SECTION 40. IC 25-23.6-10.5-4, AS AMENDED BY P.L.49-2019, 24 SECTION 8, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 25 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4. (a) An applicant under section 2 of this chapter 26 must satisfy the following: 27 (1) Have a master's or doctor's degree in addiction counseling, 28 addiction therapy, or a related area as determined by the board 29 from an eligible postsecondary educational institution that meets 30 the following requirements: 31 (1) (A) If the institution is located in the United States or a 32 territory of the United States, at the time of the applicant's 33 graduation the institution was accredited by a regional 34 accrediting body recognized by the Council for Higher 35 Education Accreditation (CHEA). 36 (2) (B) If the institution is located in Canada, at the time of the 37 applicant's graduation the institution was a member in good 38 standing with the Association of Universities and Colleges of 39 Canada. 40 (3) (C) If the institution is located in a foreign country other 41 than Canada, at the time of the applicant's graduation the 42 institution: 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 25 1 (A) (i) was recognized by the government of the country 2 where the school was located as a program to train in the 3 practice of addiction counseling; and 4 (B) (ii) maintained a standard of training substantially 5 equivalent to the standards of institutions accredited by a 6 regional accrediting body recognized by the Commission on 7 Recognition of Postsecondary Accreditation. 8 (2) Complete at least one (1) supervised clinical practicum, 9 internship, or field experience in an addiction counseling 10 setting that requires the applicant to provide seven hundred 11 (700) hours of clinical addiction counseling services and that 12 must include the following: 13 (A) Two hundred eighty (280) face to face client contact 14 hours of addiction counseling services under the 15 supervision of a qualified supervisor, as determined by the 16 board. 17 (B) Thirty-five (35) hours of supervision from a qualified 18 supervisor, as determined by the board. 19 However, an applicant who has completed a clinical 20 practicum, an internship, or field experience to obtain another 21 license under this article is not required to complete the 22 clinical addiction counseling services hours required under 23 this subdivision. 24 (b) An applicant under section 2 of this chapter who has a master's 25 or doctor's degree from a program that did not emphasize addiction 26 counseling may complete the course work requirement from an 27 institution that is: 28 (1) accredited by the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and 29 Related Educational Programs; 30 (2) recognized by the National Association of Alcohol and Drug 31 Abuse Counselors; 32 (3) recognized by the International Certification and Reciprocity 33 Consortium; 34 (4) accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Marriage 35 and Family Therapy Education; 36 (5) accredited by the American Psychological Association's 37 Commission on Accreditation; 38 (6) accredited by the Council on Social Work Education; 39 (7) accredited by the National Addiction Studies Accreditation 40 Commission; or 41 (8) approved by the board as a substantially equivalent program. 42 SECTION 41. IC 25-23.6-10.5-5 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 26 1 JULY 1, 2025]. Sec. 5. (a) An applicant under section 1 of this chapter 2 must complete the following educational requirements: 3 (1) Course work from an eligible postsecondary educational 4 institution that includes the following content areas: 5 (A) Addictions theory. 6 (B) Psychoactive drugs. 7 (C) Addictions counseling skills. 8 (D) Theories of personality. 9 (E) Developmental psychology. 10 (F) Abnormal psychology. 11 (G) Group work. 12 (H) Cultural competency. 13 (I) Ethics and professional development. 14 (J) Family education. 15 (K) Areas of content as approved by the board. 16 (2) At least one (1) supervised practicum, internship, or field 17 experience in an addiction counseling setting that requires the 18 applicant to provide at least three hundred fifty (350) hours of 19 addiction counseling services. 20 (b) The content areas under subsection (a)(1) may be combined into 21 any one (1) college level course. 22 SECTION 42. IC 25-23.6-10.5-6 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE 23 JULY 1, 2025]. Sec. 6. (a) An applicant under section 2 of this chapter 24 must complete the following educational requirements: 25 (1) Graduate course work that must include graduate level course 26 credits with material in at least the following content areas: 27 (A) Addiction counseling theories and techniques. 28 (B) Psychopharmacology. 29 (C) Psychopathology. 30 (D) Clinical appraisal and assessment. 31 (E) Theory and practice of group addiction counseling. 32 (F) Counseling addicted family systems. 33 (G) Multicultural counseling. 34 (H) Research methods in addictions. 35 (I) Areas of content as approved by the board. 36 (2) Graduate course work in the following areas: 37 (A) Legal, ethical, and professional standards issues in the 38 practice of addiction counseling and therapy or an equivalent 39 course approved by the board. 40 (B) Appraisal and assessment for individual or interpersonal 41 disorder or dysfunction. 42 (3) At least one (1) supervised clinical practicum, internship, or 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 27 1 field experience in an addiction counseling setting that requires 2 the applicant to provide seven hundred (700) hours of clinical 3 addiction counseling services and that must include the following: 4 (A) Two hundred eighty (280) face to face client contact hours 5 of addiction counseling services under the supervision of a 6 qualified supervisor, as determined by the board. 7 (B) Thirty-five (35) hours of supervision from a qualified 8 supervisor, as determined by the board. 9 However, an applicant who has completed a clinical practicum, 10 an internship, or field experience to obtain another license under 11 this article is not required to complete the clinical addiction 12 counseling services hours required under this subdivision. 13 (4) Any qualifications established by the board under subsection 14 (c). 15 (b) The content areas under subsection (a)(1) may be combined into 16 any one (1) graduate level course. 17 (c) The board shall adopt rules to establish any additional 18 educational or clinical qualifications as specified by the Council for 19 Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs or a 20 successor organization. 21 SECTION 43. IC 25-23.6-10.5-9, AS AMENDED BY P.L.83-2024, 22 SECTION 24, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 23 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 9. (a) As used in this section, "term" refers to an 24 academic semester, trimester, or quarter. 25 (b) An individual who satisfies the requirements of sections 4 6, and 26 8 of this chapter may take the licensed clinical addiction counselor 27 examination established by the board. 28 (c) An individual who satisfies the requirements of sections 3 5, and 29 7 of this chapter may take the licensed addiction counselor examination 30 established by the board. 31 (d) An individual who: 32 (1) is enrolled in the last term of the last year of a program leading 33 to a degree that meets the requirements of section 1.5(a)(1) of this 34 chapter; and 35 (2) provides a letter of good standing from the director of the 36 addiction counselor department or the director's designee; 37 may take the examination provided by the board for a license as an 38 addiction counselor associate. 39 (e) An individual who: 40 (1) is enrolled in the last term of the last year of a program leading 41 to a degree that meets the requirements of section 2.5(1) of this 42 chapter; and 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 28 1 (2) provides a letter of good standing from the director of the 2 addiction counselor department or the director's designee; 3 may take the examination provided by the board for a license as a 4 clinical addiction counselor associate. 5 (f) A letter of good standing provided under subsection (d)(2) or 6 (e)(2) by an individual who applies for a license as an addiction 7 counselor associate or clinical addiction counselor associate must 8 include the following information: 9 (1) The individual's first and last name. 10 (2) The type of degree and program in which the individual is 11 enrolled. 12 (3) A statement confirming that the individual is currently in the 13 final term of the program. 14 (4) The anticipated date of completion of the program. 15 (5) A statement confirming that the individual is in good 16 academic standing. 17 SECTION 44. IC 25-23.6-10.5-11, AS ADDED BY P.L.122-2009, 18 SECTION 29, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 19 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 11. (a) An individual who applies for an addiction 20 counselor license under this article may be exempted by the board from 21 the examination requirement under section 1 of this chapter if the 22 individual: 23 (1) is licensed or certified as an addiction counselor in another 24 state and has passed a licensing examination substantially 25 equivalent to the licensing examination required under this 26 article; 27 (2) has engaged in the practice of addiction counseling for at least 28 three (3) of the previous five (5) years; 29 (3) has passed an examination pertaining to the addiction 30 counseling laws and rules of Indiana; and 31 (4) has not committed any act and is not under investigation for 32 any act that constitutes a violation of this article; 33 and is otherwise qualified under sections 1, 3, 5, and 7 of this chapter. 34 (b) An individual who applies for a clinical addiction counselor 35 license under this article may be exempted by the board from the 36 examination requirement under section 2 of this chapter if the 37 individual: 38 (1) is licensed or certified as a clinical addiction counselor in 39 another state and has passed a licensing examination substantially 40 equivalent to the licensing examination required under this 41 article; 42 (2) has passed an examination pertaining to the addiction therapy 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 29 1 laws and rules of Indiana; and 2 (3) has not committed any act and is not under investigation for 3 any act that constitutes a violation of this article; 4 and is otherwise qualified under sections 2, 4, 6, and 8 of this chapter. 5 SECTION 45. IC 25-27.5-5-1, AS AMENDED BY P.L.247-2019, 6 SECTION 12, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 7 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) This chapter does not apply to the practice 8 of other health care professionals set forth under IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(1) 9 through IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(19). IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(18). 10 (b) This chapter does not exempt a physician assistant from the 11 requirements of IC 16-41-35-29. 12 SECTION 46. IC 25-27.5-5-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.247-2019, 13 SECTION 13, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 14 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) A physician assistant: 15 (1) must engage in a dependent practice with a collaborating 16 physician; and 17 (2) may not be independent from the collaborating physician, 18 including any of the activities of other health care providers set 19 forth under IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(1) through IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(19). 20 IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(18). 21 A physician assistant may perform, under a collaborative agreement, 22 the duties and responsibilities that are delegated by the collaborating 23 physician and that are within the collaborating physician's scope of 24 practice, including prescribing and dispensing drugs and medical 25 devices. A patient may elect to be seen, examined, and treated by the 26 collaborating physician. 27 (b) If a physician assistant determines that a patient needs to be 28 examined by a physician, the physician assistant shall immediately 29 notify the collaborating physician or physician designee. 30 (c) If a physician assistant notifies the collaborating physician that 31 the physician should examine a patient, the collaborating physician 32 shall: 33 (1) schedule an examination of the patient unless the patient 34 declines; or 35 (2) arrange for another physician to examine the patient. 36 (d) A collaborating physician or physician assistant who does not 37 comply with subsections (b) and (c) is subject to discipline under 38 IC 25-1-9. 39 (e) A physician assistant's collaborative agreement with a 40 collaborating physician must: 41 (1) be in writing; 42 (2) include all the tasks delegated to the physician assistant by the 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 30 1 collaborating physician; 2 (3) set forth the collaborative agreement for the physician 3 assistant, including the emergency procedures that the physician 4 assistant must follow; and 5 (4) specify the protocol the physician assistant shall follow in 6 prescribing a drug. 7 (f) The physician shall submit the collaborative agreement to the 8 board. The physician assistant may prescribe a drug under the 9 collaborative agreement unless the board denies the collaborative 10 agreement. Any amendment to the collaborative agreement must be 11 resubmitted to the board, and the physician assistant may operate under 12 any new prescriptive authority under the amended collaborative 13 agreement unless the agreement has been denied by the board. 14 (g) A physician or a physician assistant who violates the 15 collaborative agreement described in this section may be disciplined 16 under IC 25-1-9. 17 SECTION 47. IC 25-34.1-3-2, AS AMENDED BY P.L.45-2016, 18 SECTION 1, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 19 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. (a) Except as provided in: 20 (1) subsection (b); 21 (2) section 8(i) of this chapter; and 22 (3) section 11 of this chapter; 23 no person shall, for consideration, sell, buy, trade, exchange, option, 24 lease, rent, manage, list, or appraise real estate or negotiate or offer to 25 perform any of those acts in Indiana or with respect to real estate 26 situated in Indiana, without a license. 27 (b) This article does not apply to: 28 (1) acts of an attorney which constitute the practice of law; 29 (2) performance by a public official of acts authorized by law; 30 (3) acts of a receiver, executor, administrator, commissioner, 31 trustee, or guardian, respecting real estate owned or leased by the 32 person represented, performed pursuant to court order or a will; 33 (4) rental, for periods of less than thirty (30) days, of rooms, 34 lodging, or other accommodations, by any commercial hotel, 35 motel, tourist facility, or similar establishment which regularly 36 furnishes such accommodations for consideration; 37 (5) rental of residential apartment units by an individual 38 employed or supervised by a licensed broker; 39 (6) rental of apartment units which are owned and managed by a 40 person whose only activities regulated by this article are in 41 relation to a maximum of twelve (12) apartment units which are 42 located on a single parcel of real estate or on contiguous parcels 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 31 1 of real estate; 2 (7) referral of real estate business by a broker or referral company 3 which is licensed under the laws of another state, to or from 4 brokers licensed by this state; 5 (8) acts performed by a person in relation to real estate owned by 6 that person unless that person is licensed under this article, in 7 which case the article does apply to that person; 8 (9) acts performed by a regular, full-time, salaried employee of a 9 person in relation to real estate owned or leased by that person 10 unless the employee is licensed under this article, in which case 11 the article does apply to that person; 12 (10) conduct of a sale at public auction by a licensed auctioneer 13 pursuant to IC 25-6.1; 14 (11) (10) sale, lease, or other transfer of interests in cemetery lots; 15 (12) (11) acts of a broker, who is licensed under the laws of 16 another state, which are performed pursuant to, and under 17 restrictions provided by, written permission that is granted by the 18 commission in its sole discretion, except that such a person shall 19 comply with the requirements of section 5(c) of this chapter; and 20 (13) (12) the performance of an evaluation of real property by an 21 employee, an officer, a director, or a member of a credit or loan 22 committee of a financial institution, or by any other person 23 engaged by a financial institution, in a transaction for which the 24 financial institution would not be required to use the services of 25 a state licensed appraiser under regulations adopted under Title 26 XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and 27 Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3331 et seq.). 28 SECTION 48. IC 25-34.5-3-7, AS AMENDED BY P.L.11-2023, 29 SECTION 87, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 30 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 7. This article does not affect the applicability of 31 IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(20). IC 25-22.5-1-2(a)(19). 32 SECTION 49. IC 25-35.6-1-4, AS AMENDED BY P.L.149-2022, 33 SECTION 15, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 34 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4. Nothing in this article shall be construed as 35 preventing or restricting the following: 36 (1) A physician or surgeon from engaging in the practice of 37 medicine in this state, or a person under the supervision and 38 control of a physician or surgeon from conducting hearing testing, 39 provided such a person is not called an audiologist. 40 (2) Any hearing aid dealer from: 41 (A) engaging in the testing of hearing and other practices and 42 procedures necessary for the business for which the dealer is 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 32 1 registered in this state under IC 25-20-1; and 2 (B) using the title hearing aid specialist or any similar title or 3 description of service. 4 (3) (2) Any person licensed or registered in this state by any other 5 law from engaging in the profession or occupation for which the 6 person is licensed or registered. 7 (4) (3) A person employed as a speech-language pathologist or 8 audiologist by the government of the United States, if such person 9 performs speech-language pathology or audiology services solely 10 within the confines or under the jurisdiction of the governmental 11 organization by which the person is employed. However, such 12 person may, without obtaining a license under this article, consult 13 with or disseminate the person's research findings and other 14 scientific information to speech-language pathologists and 15 audiologists outside the jurisdiction of the organization by which 16 the person is employed. Such person may also offer instruction 17 and lectures to the public without being licensed under this 18 article. Such person may additionally elect to be subject to this 19 article. 20 (5) (4) The activities and services of persons pursuing a course of 21 study leading to a degree in speech-language pathology or 22 audiology at a postsecondary educational institution, if: 23 (A) such activities and services constitute a part of a 24 supervised course of study; 25 (B) such person is designated speech-language pathology or 26 audiology intern, speech-language pathology or audiology 27 trainee, or by other such titles clearly indicating the training 28 status appropriate to the person's level of training; and 29 (C) the person works only under the supervision of a 30 speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed under this 31 article. 32 (6) (5) The activities and services of persons fulfilling the clinical 33 experience requirement of section 5(2)(B)(ii) or 6(3)(B) of this 34 chapter, if such activities and services constitute a part of the 35 experience required for that section's fulfillment. 36 (7) (6) The performance of pure tone air conduction testing by an 37 industrial audiometric technician, as defined by federal law, who 38 is working in an industrial hearing conservation program directed 39 by a physician or an audiologist. 40 (8) (7) The performance of speech-language pathology or 41 audiology services in this state by any person not a resident of this 42 state who is not licensed under this article, if such services are 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 33 1 performed: 2 (A) under IC 25-35.6-5; or 3 (B) for no more than five (5) days in any calendar year and in 4 cooperation with a speech-language pathologist or audiologist 5 licensed under this article, and if such person meets the 6 qualifications and requirements for application for licensure 7 described in section 5(1) and 5(2) or 6(1) and 6(2) of this 8 chapter. 9 However, a person not a resident of this state who is not licensed 10 under this article or practicing under IC 25-35.6-5, but who is 11 licensed under the law of another state which has established 12 licensure requirements at least equivalent to those established by 13 section 5 or 6 of this chapter or who is the holder of a certificate 14 of clinical competence in speech-language pathology or audiology 15 or its equivalent issued by a nationally recognized association for 16 speech-language or hearing, may offer speech-language pathology 17 or audiology services in this state for no more than one hundred 18 eighty (180) days in any calendar year, if such services are 19 performed in cooperation with a speech-language pathologist or 20 audiologist licensed under this article. 21 SECTION 50. IC 25-35.6-4-1, AS ADDED BY P.L.178-2014, 22 SECTION 4, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 23 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 1. (a) This section does not apply to a prescription 24 or order by a person who: 25 (1) is licensed, certified, registered, or regulated by a board listed 26 in IC 25-1-9-1; and 27 (2) has authority to issue a prescription or order for a hearing aid. 28 (b) A person may not sell, lease, or rent a hearing aid (as defined in 29 IC 25-20-1-1) in Indiana unless the hearing aid has been fitted in 30 person by any of the following: 31 (1) A hearing aid dealer who has been issued a certificate of 32 registration under IC 25-20. 33 (2) an audiologist who is licensed under this article. 34 (c) A person who violates this section commits a Class B infraction. 35 SECTION 51. IC 25-37-1-2 IS AMENDED TO READ AS 36 FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 2. "Transient 37 merchant", when used in this chapter, includes all persons, firms, 38 limited liability companies, and corporations, both as principals and 39 agents, who engage in, do, or transact any temporary or transient 40 business in this state, either in one (1) locality or in traveling from 41 place to place in this state, offering for sale or selling goods, wares, or 42 merchandise, and those who, for the purpose of carrying on such 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 34 1 business, hire, lease, or occupy any permanent or mobile building, 2 structure, or real estate for the exhibition by means of samples, 3 catalogues, photographs, and price lists or sale of such goods, wares, 4 or merchandise. The term does not include: the following: 5 (1) any person, individual, copartner, limited liability company, 6 or corporation which grows the goods, wares, or merchandise that 7 is sold or offered for sale; 8 (2) a person who makes crafts or items by hand and sells them or 9 offers them for sale; 10 (3) an auctioneer who is licensed under IC 25-6.1; 11 (4) (3) a resident of the county in which the sale takes place who 12 conducts a sale of tangible personal property for no more than 13 four (4) days per calendar year; 14 (5) (4) an organization that is exempt from the Indiana gross retail 15 tax under IC 6-2.5-5-26; 16 (6) (5) a person who: 17 (A) sells merchandise; 18 (B) offers to sell merchandise; and 19 (C) provides proof that the sale is being conducted as part of 20 an activity sponsored by an organization described in 21 subdivision (5) (4); 22 (7) (6) a person who: 23 (A) organizes; 24 (B) sells merchandise at; 25 (C) offers to sell merchandise at; or 26 (D) exhibits at; 27 a trade show or convention; or 28 (8) (7) except as provided in section 15 of this chapter, a person 29 who holds a registered retail merchant's certificate under 30 IC 6-2.5-8. 31 SECTION 52. IC 32-29-7-1 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 32 2025]. Sec. 1. As used in this chapter, "auctioneer" means an 33 auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1. 34 SECTION 53. IC 32-30-10-1 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 35 1, 2025]. Sec. 1. As used in this chapter, "auctioneer" means an 36 auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1. 37 SECTION 54. IC 34-6-2-13 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 1, 38 2025]. Sec. 13. "Auctioneer", for purposes of IC 34-55-6, means an 39 auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1. 40 SECTION 55. IC 35-52-25-5 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 41 1, 2025]. Sec. 5. IC 25-6.1-7-1 defines a crime concerning auctioneers 42 and auctions. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 35 1 SECTION 56. IC 35-52-25-6 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 2 1, 2025]. Sec. 6. IC 25-6.1-7-2 defines a crime concerning auctioneers 3 and auctions. 4 SECTION 57. IC 35-52-25-19 IS REPEALED [EFFECTIVE JULY 5 1, 2025]. Sec. 19. IC 25-20-1-21 defines a crime concerning hearing 6 aid dealers. 7 SECTION 58. IC 36-1-11-4, AS AMENDED BY P.L.251-2015, 8 SECTION 33, IS AMENDED TO READ AS FOLLOWS [EFFECTIVE 9 JULY 1, 2025]: Sec. 4. (a) A disposing agent who wants to sell or 10 transfer real property must comply with this section, except as 11 permitted by section 4.1, 4.2, 5, 5.5, 5.7, 5.9, 8, 14, 15, or 18 of this 12 chapter. 13 (b) The disposing agent shall first have the property appraised by 14 two (2) appraisers. The appraisers must be: 15 (1) professionally engaged in making appraisals; 16 (2) licensed under IC 25-34.1; or 17 (3) employees of the political subdivision familiar with the value 18 of the property. 19 (c) After the property is appraised, the disposing agent shall 20 determine a minimum bid for the property based on the appraisals and 21 the disposing agent's knowledge of the property, publish a notice in 22 accordance with IC 5-3-1 setting forth the terms and conditions of the 23 sale, including the minimum bid, and, when subsection (e) is 24 employed, may engage an auctioneer licensed under IC 25-6.1 to 25 advertise the sale and to conduct a public auction. The advertising 26 conducted by the auctioneer is in addition to any other notice required 27 by law and shall include a detailed description of the property to be 28 sold stating the key numbers, if any, of the tracts within that property. 29 If the disposing agent determines that the best sale of the property can 30 be made by letting the bidders determine certain conditions of the sale 31 (such as required zoning or soil or drainage conditions) as a 32 prerequisite to purchasing the property, the disposing agent may permit 33 the bidders to specify those conditions. The notice must state the 34 following: 35 (1) Bids will be received beginning on a specific date. 36 (2) The sale will continue from day to day for a period determined 37 by the disposing agent of not more than sixty (60) days. 38 (3) The property may not be sold to a person who is ineligible 39 under section 16 of this chapter. 40 (4) A bid submitted by a trust (as defined in IC 30-4-1-1(a)) must 41 identify each: 42 (A) beneficiary of the trust; and 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 36 1 (B) settlor empowered to revoke or modify the trust. 2 (d) A bid must be open to public inspection. A bidder may raise the 3 bidder's bid, and subject to subsection (e), that raise takes effect after 4 the board has given written notice of that raise to the other bidders. 5 (e) The disposing agent may also engage an auctioneer licensed 6 under IC 25-6.1 to conduct a sale by public auction. The auction may 7 be conducted either at the time for beginning the sale in accordance 8 with the public notice or after the beginning of the sale. The disposing 9 agent shall give each bidder who has submitted a bid written notice of 10 the time and place of the auction. 11 (f) The disposing agent may, before expiration of the time set out in 12 the notice, sell the property to the highest and best bidder. The highest 13 and best bidder must have complied with any requirement under 14 subsection (c)(4). The disposing agent may reject all bids. If the 15 disposing agent rejects all bids, the disposing agent must make a 16 written determination to reject all bids explaining why all bids were 17 rejected. 18 (g) If the disposing agent determines that, in the exercise of good 19 business judgment, the disposing agent should hire a broker or 20 auctioneer to sell the property, the disposing agent may do so and pay 21 the broker or auctioneer a reasonable compensation out of the gross 22 proceeds of the sale. A disposing agent may hire a broker to sell real 23 property directly rather than using the bid process under subsections (c) 24 through (f) if: 25 (1) in the case of a political subdivision other than a school 26 corporation: 27 (A) the disposing agent publishes a notice of the determination 28 to hire the broker in accordance with IC 5-3-1; and 29 (B) the property has been up for bid for at least sixty (60) days 30 before the broker is hired, and either no bids were received or 31 the disposing agent has rejected all bids that were received; or 32 (2) in the case of a school corporation, the disposing agent 33 publishes a notice of the determination to hire the broker in 34 accordance with IC 5-3-1. 35 The disposing agent may hire one (1) of the appraisers as the broker or 36 auctioneer. 37 (h) The following apply if a broker is hired under subsection (g): 38 (1) The property may not be sold to a person who is ineligible 39 under section 16 of this chapter. 40 (2) If the property is sold to a trust (as defined in IC 30-4-1-1(a)), 41 the following information must be placed in the public record 42 relating to the sale: 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148 37 1 (A) Each beneficiary of the trust. 2 (B) Each settlor empowered to revoke or modify the trust. 3 (i) A disposing agent may conduct a public auction under this 4 section solely by electronic means, referred to in this subsection as an 5 electronic sale. A disposing agent that elects to conduct an electronic 6 sale may receive electronic payments and establish policies necessary 7 to secure the payments in a timely fashion. The disposing agent may 8 not charge an additional fee for conducting an electronic sale. If a 9 disposing agent chooses to conduct a public auction as an electronic 10 sale, the notice required by subsection (c) must include a statement 11 declaring this fact. 2025 IN 1520—LS 7633/DI 148