Text of OH HB 343 (2023)
Enact the Reproductive Care Act
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As introduced
296,389 characters
As Introduced
135th General Assembly
Regular Session
H. B. No. 343
2023-2024
Representatives Somani, Liston
Cosponsors: Representatives Galonski, Russo, Denson, Brown, Miller, A.,
Sweeney, Brewer, Brent, Isaacsohn, Grim, Weinstein, Miranda, Miller, J.,
Lightbody, Upchurch, McNally, Skindell, Forhan, Mohamed, Blackshear, Baker,
Abdullahi, Robinson, Jarrells, Humphrey, Thomas, C.
A B I L L
To amend sections 109.572, 2305.11, 2317.02,
2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792,
3702.30, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22,
4731.223, 4731.281, 4731.293, and 4743.09; to
enact sections 2305.2312, 3732.01, 3732.02,
3732.03, 3732.04, 3732.05, 3732.06, 3732.07,
3732.08, 3732.09, and 3732.11; and to repeal
sections 2307.54, 2317.56, 2317.561, 2919.101,
2919.124, 2919.171, 2919.19, 2919.191, 2919.192,
2919.193, 2919.194, 2919.195, 2919.196,
2919.197, 2919.198, 2919.199, 2919.1910,
2919.1912, 2919.1913, 2919.20, 2919.201,
2919.202, 2919.203, 2919.204, 2919.205, 3701.79,
3701.791, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304,
3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308,
3702.309, 3702.3010, 3702.3011, 3726.01,
3726.02, 3726.03, 3726.04, 3726.041, 3726.042,
3726.05, 3726.09, 3726.10, 3726.11, 3726.12,
3726.13, 3726.14, 3726.15, 3726.16, 3726.95,
3726.99, 3727.60, 4717.271, 5101.57, and 5103.11
of the Revised Code to enact the Reproductive
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As Introduced
Care Act regarding abortion, abortion-related
laws, and reproductive health protections; to
amend the version of section 3702.30 of the
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect
September 30, 2024; and to repeal the version of
section 5103.11 of the Revised Code that is
scheduled to take effect January 1, 2025, to
continue the changes on and after those dates.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 1. That sections 109.572, 2305.11, 2317.02,
2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792, 3702.30, 4112.01,
4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22, 4731.223, 4731.281, 4731.293, and
4743.09 be amended and sections 2305.2312, 3732.01, 3732.02,
3732.03, 3732.04, 3732.05, 3732.06, 3732.07, 3732.08, 3732.09,
and 3732.11 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in
the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists that indicates that the person
who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted
of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03,
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As Introduced
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13,
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11,
2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07,
2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25,
2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01,
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25,
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.17, 2923.21, 2923.42, 2925.02,
2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.13, 2925.22,
2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, 2925.37, or 3716.11
of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation
of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July
1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that
would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been
committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11
of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this
state, any other state, or the United States that is
substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in
division (A)(1)(a) of this section;
(c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of
the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense
specified under section 9.79 of the Revised Code or in section
3319.31 of the Revised Code.
(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or
3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
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As Introduced
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who
has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal
records check is required by those sections. The superintendent
shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described
in division (B) of this section to determine whether any
information exists that indicates that the person who is the
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or
pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03,
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34,
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05,
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31,
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02,
2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11,
2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25,
2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11,
2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other
state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to
any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this
section.
(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27,
173.38, 173.381, 3740.11, 5119.34, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342,
5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a
set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described
in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check of the person for whom the
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As Introduced
request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request
previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or
(except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34,
5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the
following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of
entry of the guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request
pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the
Revised Code) the date the person was found eligible for
intervention in lieu of conviction:
(a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01,
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13,
2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341,
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33,
2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08,
2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31,
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02,
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02,
2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05,
2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42,
2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48,
2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12,
2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.124, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24,
2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24,
2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12,
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21,
2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05,
2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23,
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2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the
Revised Code;
(b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;
(c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as
it existed prior to July 1, 1996;
(d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object
of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;
(e) A violation of an existing or former municipal
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United
States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.
(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 or
2151.904 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in
division (B) of this section to determine whether any
information exists that indicates that the person who is the
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or
pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2151.421, 2903.01,
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11,
2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22,
2903.32, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.32, 2907.02,
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As Introduced
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09,
2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32,
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22,
2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49,
2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12,
2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.17, 2923.21, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04,
2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24,
2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, 2925.37, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the
Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code
as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July
1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC
violations committed within the three years immediately
preceding the submission of the application or petition that is
the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, or a
violation of Chapter 2919. of the Revised Code that is a felony;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this
state, any other state, or the United States that is
substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in
division (A)(4)(a) of this section.
(5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.013
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2)
of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
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section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2151.421, 2903.01, 2903.02,
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21,
2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.32,
2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08,
2907.09, 2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25,
2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02,
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12,
2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11,
2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41,
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47,
2913.48, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12,
2919.22, 2919.224, 2919.225, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11,
2921.13, 2921.14, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13,
2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the
Revised Code within five years of the date of application for
licensure or certification.
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this
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state, any other state, or the United States that is
substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations
described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.
(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2)
of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the
following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03,
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34,
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05,
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23,
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323,
2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12,
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02,
2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised
Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996,
a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would
have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as
it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been
committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11
of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
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(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this
state, any other state, or the United States that is
substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in
division (A)(6)(a) of this section.
(7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check
from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in
division (B) of this section to determine whether any
information exists indicating that the person who is the subject
of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any
criminal offense in this state or in any other state. If the
individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the
course of business, the superintendent shall require information
from the federal bureau of investigation as described in
division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division (F) of this
section, the superintendent shall report the findings of the
criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of
investigation provides to the director of public safety.
(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37,
1321.53, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a
set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described
in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who
has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the
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department of commerce or a division in the department. The
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists that indicates that the person
who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted
of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state, any
other state, or the United States.
(9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check
from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised
Code or from an individual under section 928.03, 4701.08,
4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4729.53,
4729.90, 4729.92, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15,
4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202,
4740.061, 4741.10, 4747.051, 4751.20, 4751.201, 4751.21,
4753.061, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06,
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4774.031, 4774.06, 4776.021,
4778.04, 4778.07, 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code,
accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1)
of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in
the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists that indicates that the person
who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or
pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any
other state. Subject to division (F) of this section, the
superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under
section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state
and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the
other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the
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individual in the request.
(10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 124.74,
718.131, 1121.23, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in
the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists that indicates that the person
who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted
of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing
or former law of this state, any other state, or the United
States.
(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest
to any offense under any existing or former law of this state,
any other state, or the United States that makes the person
ineligible for appointment or retention under section 3772.07 of
the Revised Code or that is a disqualifying offense as defined
in that section or substantially equivalent to a disqualifying
offense, as applicable.
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(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33
or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person for
whom a criminal records check is required under that section.
The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in
the manner described in division (B) of this section to
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the
person who is the subject of the request previously has been
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03,
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34,
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05,
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31,
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02,
2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11,
2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25,
2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11,
2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other
state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to
any of the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this
section.
(13) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3796.12
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint
impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of
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this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a
disqualifying offense as specified in rules adopted under
section 9.79 and division (B)(2)(b) of section 3796.03 of the
Revised Code if the person who is the subject of the request is
an administrator or other person responsible for the daily
operation of, or an owner or prospective owner, officer or
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member
of, an entity seeking a license from the department of commerce
under Chapter 3796. of the Revised Code.
(14) On receipt of a request required by section 3796.13
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint
impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists that
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a
disqualifying offense as specified in rules adopted under
division (B)(14)(a) of section 3796.03 of the Revised Code if
the person who is the subject of the request is seeking
employment with an entity licensed by the department of commerce
under Chapter 3796. of the Revised Code.
(15) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 4768.06
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division
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(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section to determine whether any information exists indicating
that the person who is the subject of the request has been
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this
state or in any other state.
(16) On receipt of a request pursuant to division (B) of
section 4764.07 or division (A) of section 4735.143 of the
Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1)
of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained
in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists indicating that the person who is
the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded
guilty to any criminal offense in any state or the United
States.
(17) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check
under section 147.022 of the Revised Code, a completed form
prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the
bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in
division (B) of this section to determine whether any
information exists that indicates that the person who is the
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or
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pleaded guilty or no contest to any criminal offense under any
existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the
United States.
(18) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to division (F) of
section 2915.081 or division (E) of section 2915.082 of the
Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1)
of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained
in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine
whether any information exists indicating that the person who is
the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded
guilty or no contest to any offense that is a violation of
Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code or to any offense under any
existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the
United States that is substantially equivalent to such an
offense.
(19) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3775.03
of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this
section and shall request information from the federal bureau of
investigation to determine whether any information exists
indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has
been convicted of any offense under any existing or former law
of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a
disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the
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Revised Code.
(B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the
superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be
conducted under this section as follows:
(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be
reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the
bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code
that relates to the person who is the subject of the criminal
records check, including, if the criminal records check was
requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 124.74, 173.27, 173.38,
173.381, 718.131, 928.03, 1121.23, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53,
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3740.11,
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 3775.03, 3796.12, 3796.13, 4729.071,
4729.53, 4729.90, 4729.92, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 4764.07,
4768.06, 5104.013, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081,
5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant
information contained in records that have been sealed under
section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;
(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of
investigation any information it has with respect to the person
who is the subject of the criminal records check, including
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to
section 2151.86 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other
Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that
nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information
the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under
section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information
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from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent
shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of
this section.
(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee
may request criminal history records from other states or the
federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and
privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised
Code.
(4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the
criminal records check a list or description of the offenses
listed or described in the relevant provision of division (A) of
this section. The superintendent shall exclude from the results
any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by
federal law.
(5) The superintendent shall send the results of the
criminal records check to the person to whom it is to be sent
not later than the following number of days after the date the
superintendent receives the request for the criminal records
check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of
this section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in
the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:
(a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of
this section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to
conduct the criminal records check, thirty;
(b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3)
of this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.
(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check
from any person for whom a criminal records check is to be
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conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible
format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and
electronic formats.
(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for
whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this
section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted
under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a
county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any
other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on
the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent.
The office, department, or entity may charge the person a
reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard
impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this
division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format,
or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for
providing a criminal records check under this section. The
person requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee
prescribed pursuant to this division. In the case of a request
under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47,
1761.26, 2151.33, 2151.412, or 5164.34 of the Revised Code, the
fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.
(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include,
but not be limited to, an electronic method.
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As Introduced
(D) The results of a criminal records check conducted
under this section, other than a criminal records check
specified in division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the
person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a
period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent
completes the criminal records check. If during that period the
superintendent receives another request for a criminal records
check to be conducted under this section for that person, the
superintendent shall provide the results from the previous
criminal records check of the person at a lower fee than the fee
prescribed for the initial criminal records check.
(E) When the superintendent receives a request for
information from a registered private provider, the
superintendent shall proceed as if the request was received from
a school district board of education under section 3319.39 of
the Revised Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)
(c) of this section to any such request for an applicant who is
a teacher.
(F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, all
information regarding the results of a criminal records check
conducted under this section that the superintendent reports or
sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to the
director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the
person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal
records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject
person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal
offense.
(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit,
restrict, or preclude the superintendent's release of
information that relates to the arrest of a person who is
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As Introduced
eighteen years of age or older, to an adjudication of a child as
a delinquent child, or to a criminal conviction of a person
under eighteen years of age in circumstances in which a release
of that nature is authorized under division (E)(2), (3), or (4)
of section 109.57 of the Revised Code pursuant to a rule adopted
under division (E)(1) of that section.
(G) As used in this section:
(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records
check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B)
of this section.
(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the
Revised Code.
(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school
or entity registered with the department of education and
workforce under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to
participate in the autism scholarship program or section 3310.58
of the Revised Code to participate in the Jon Peterson special
needs scholarship program.
Sec. 2305.11. (A) An action for libel, slander, malicious
prosecution, or false imprisonment, an action for malpractice
other than an action upon a medical, dental, optometric, or
chiropractic claim, an action for legal malpractice against an
attorney or a law firm or legal professional association, or an
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As Introduced
action upon a statute for a penalty or forfeiture shall be
commenced within one year after the cause of action accrued,
provided that an action by an employee for the payment of unpaid
minimum wages, unpaid overtime compensation, or liquidated
damages by reason of the nonpayment of minimum wages or overtime
compensation shall be commenced within two years after the cause
of action accrued.
(B) A civil action for unlawful abortion pursuant to
section 2919.12 of the Revised Code, a civil action authorized
by division (H) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code, and a
civil action pursuant to division (B) of section 2307.52 of the
Revised Code for terminating or attempting to terminate a human
pregnancy after viability in violation of division (A) of
section 2919.17 of the Revised Code, and a civil action for
terminating or attempting to terminate a human pregnancy of a
pain-capable unborn child in violation of division (E) of
section 2919.201 of the Revised Code shall be commenced within
one year after the performance or inducement of the abortion or
within one year after the attempt to perform or induce the
abortion in violation of division (A) of section 2919.17 of the
Revised Code or division (E) of section 2919.201 of the Revised
Code.
(C) As used in this section, "medical claim," "dental
claim," "optometric claim," and "chiropractic claim" have the
same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2305.2312.
As used in this section, "reproductive
health care" and "reproductive health care helper" have the same
meanings as in section 3732.07 of the Revised Code.
Except as provided in sections 2307.52, 2307.53, 2307.54,
2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.13, 2919.14, 2919.15,
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As Introduced
2919.151, 2919.16, and 2919.17 of the Revised Code, a health
care provider providing reproductive health care, a health care
facility where reproductive health care is provided, an
individual seeking or accessing reproductive health care, or a
reproductive health care helper is not liable for or subject to
any of the following for injury, death, or loss to person or
property that allegedly arises from any act or omission
associated with providing reproductive health care: damages in a
civil action, prosecution in a criminal proceeding, or
professional disciplinary action. This section does not apply if
the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct or
reckless disregard for the consequences so as to affect the life
or health of the patient.
Sec. 2317.02. The following persons shall not testify in
certain respects:
(A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the
attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the
attorney's advice to a client, except that the attorney may
testify by express consent of the client or, if the client is
deceased, by the express consent of the surviving spouse or the
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client.
However, if the client voluntarily reveals the substance of
attorney-client communications in a nonprivileged context or is
deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived
any testimonial privilege under this division, the attorney may
be compelled to testify on the same subject.
The testimonial privilege established under this division
does not apply concerning either of the following:
(a) A communication between a client in a capital case, as
defined in section 2901.02 of the Revised Code, and the client's
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As Introduced
attorney if the communication is relevant to a subsequent
ineffective assistance of counsel claim by the client alleging
that the attorney did not effectively represent the client in
the case;
(b) A communication between a client who has since died
and the deceased client's attorney if the communication is
relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud,
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a
document that is the basis of the dispute.
(2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's
advice to a client, except that if the client is an insurance
company, the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an
in camera inspection by a court, about communications made by
the client to the attorney or by the attorney to the client that
are related to the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or
future commission of bad faith by the client, if the party
seeking disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie
showing of bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the
client.
(B)(1) A physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or
dentist concerning a communication made to the physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist by a patient in
that relation or the advice of a physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist given to a patient, except as
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As Introduced
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and
division (B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient
is deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived
any testimonial privilege under this division, the physician or
advanced practice registered nurse may be compelled to testify
on the same subject.
The testimonial privilege established under this division
does not apply, and a physician, advanced practice registered
nurse, or dentist may testify or may be compelled to testify, in
any of the following circumstances:
(a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123.
of the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:
(i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal
representative of the patient gives express consent;
(ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient
or the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives
express consent;
(iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic
claim, or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of
the Revised Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type
of civil action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised
Code is filed by the patient, the personal representative of the
estate of the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or
other legal representative.
(b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment
or services received by a patient, if the court-ordered
treatment or services were ordered as part of a case plan
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As Introduced
journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the
court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or relevant to
dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody
proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.
(c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the
results of any test that determines the presence or
concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of
them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled
substance in the patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma,
breath, urine, or other bodily substance at any time relevant to
the criminal offense in question.
(d) In any criminal action against a physician, advanced
practice registered nurse, or dentist. In such an action, the
testimonial privilege established under this division does not
prohibit the admission into evidence, in accordance with the
Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or dental records or
other communications between a patient and the physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist that are related
to the action and obtained by subpoena, search warrant, or other
lawful means. A court that permits or compels a physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist to testify in
such an action or permits the introduction into evidence of
patient records or other communications in such an action shall
require that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality
that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or
deleting specific information from its records.
(e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has
since died and the deceased patient's physician, advanced
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As Introduced
practice registered nurse, or dentist, the communication is
relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that
deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims are by
testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction,
and the dispute addresses the competency of the deceased patient
when the deceased patient executed a document that is the basis
of the dispute or whether the deceased patient was a victim of
fraud, undue influence, or duress when the deceased patient
executed a document that is the basis of the dispute.
(ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor
or administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, or other health
care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section is a
permitted use or disclosure of protected health information, as
defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an authorization or
opportunity to be heard shall not be required.
(iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not
require a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy
notes, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.
(iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek
a protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.
(v) A person to whom protected health information is
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the
information was requested and shall return the protected health
information to the covered entity or destroy the protected
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health information, including all copies made, at the conclusion
of the litigation or proceeding.
(2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written
statement to a health care provider that states that an official
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against
a specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that
pertain to any test or the results of any test administered to
the specified person to determine the presence or concentration
of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider,
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a
copy of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If
the health care provider does not possess any of the requested
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the
requested records.
(b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding
the person in question at any time relevant to the criminal
offense in question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the
results of the test in question, the custodian of the records
may submit a certified copy of the records, and, upon its
submission, the certified copy is qualified as authentic
evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the
Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the
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Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of records
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to
call as a witness the person who administered the test to which
the records pertain, the person under whose supervision the test
was administered, the custodian of the records, the person who
made the records, or the person under whose supervision the
records were made.
(3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist may be compelled to testify or to
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as
to a communication made to the physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist by the patient in question in that
relation, or the advice of the physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist given to the patient in question,
that related causally or historically to physical or mental
injuries that are relevant to issues in the medical claim,
dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action
for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter
4123. of the Revised Code.
(b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)
(1) of this section does not apply to a physician, advanced
practice registered nurse, or dentist as provided in division
(B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist, in lieu of personally testifying
as to the results of the test in question, may submit a
certified copy of those results, and, upon its submission, the
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence.
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Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not
apply to any certified copy of results submitted in accordance
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed
to limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person
who administered the test in question, the person under whose
supervision the test was administered, the custodian of the
results of the test, the person who compiled the results, or the
person under whose supervision the results were compiled.
(4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1)
of this section is not waived when a communication is made by a
physician or advanced practice registered nurse to a pharmacist
or when there is communication between a patient and a
pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient or advanced
practice registered nurse-patient relation.
(5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section,
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or
statements necessary to enable a physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or dentist to diagnose, treat, prescribe, or
act for a patient. A "communication" may include, but is not
limited to, any medical or dental, office, or hospital
communication such as a record, chart, letter, memorandum,
laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, financial
statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.
(b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health
care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-
term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care
practitioner.
(c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:
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(i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that
provides medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients
who do not require hospitalization, including a dialysis center,
ambulatory surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility,
diagnostic imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
center, home health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center,
radiation therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care
center. "Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the
private office of a physician, advanced practice registered
nurse, or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or
group practice.
(ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical
services.
(iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as
in section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.
(iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01
of the Revised Code.
(v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home,
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a
residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a
nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised
Code; a skilled nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01
of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for
individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.
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(vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01
of the Revised Code.
(d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section,
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of
the Revised Code.
(6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this
section apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic
medicine, doctors of podiatry, advanced practice registered
nurses, and dentists.
(7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section
2305.33 of the Revised Code upon physicians or advanced practice
registered nurses who report an employee's use of a drug of
abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one involving
the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee in
accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in
division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the
Revised Code and "advanced practice registered nurse" has the
same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to
the authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect,
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose
in the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify
by express consent of the person making the communication,
except when the disclosure of the information is in violation of
a sacred trust and except that, if the person voluntarily
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testifies or is deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421
of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege
under this division, the cleric may be compelled to testify on
the same subject except when disclosure of the information is in
violation of a sacred trust.
(2) As used in division (C) of this section:
(a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest,
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained,
accredited, or licensed minister of an established and legally
cognizable church, denomination, or sect.
(b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:
(i) The confession or confidential communication was made
directly to the cleric.
(ii) The confession or confidential communication was made
in the manner and context that places the cleric specifically
and strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.
(D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by
one to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of
the other, during coverture, unless the communication was made,
or act done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person
competent to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the
marital relation has ceased to exist;
(E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning
any matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party,
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As Introduced
be permitted to testify;
(F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing
is sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian,
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property
or thing.
(G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid
educator license from the state board of education as provided
for in section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a licensed
professional clinical counselor, licensed professional
counselor, social worker, independent social worker, marriage
and family therapist or independent marriage and family
therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code
as a social work assistant concerning a confidential
communication received from a client in that relation or the
person's advice to a client unless any of the following applies:
(a) The communication or advice indicates clear and
present danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes
of this division, cases in which there are indications of
present or past child abuse or neglect of the client constitute
a clear and present danger.
(b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.
(c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client
gives express consent.
(d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on
the same subject.
(e) The court in camera determines that the information
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-
client, marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-
client relationship.
(f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules
after an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school
guidance counselor is relevant to that action.
(g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as
part of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the
Revised Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are
necessary or relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or
temporary or permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151.
of the Revised Code.
(2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall
relieve a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or
registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the
requirement to report information concerning child abuse or
neglect under section 2151.421 of the Revised Code.
(H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or
otherwise issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution,
legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental
rights and responsibilities for the care of children, in any
action or proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child
abuse, child neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding,
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
that is brought by or against either parent who takes part in
mediation in accordance with the order and that pertains to the
mediation process, to any information discussed or presented in
the mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to
the awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their
children;
(I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of
the communication assistant's authority, when providing
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of
1934," 104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a
communication made through a telecommunications relay service.
Nothing in this section shall limit the obligation of a
communications assistant to divulge information or testify when
mandated by federal law or regulation or pursuant to subpoena in
a criminal proceeding.
Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or
privilege granted under federal law or regulation.
(J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege
established under this division does not apply, and a
chiropractor may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any
civil action, in accordance with the discovery provisions of the
Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a civil action, or
in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised
Code, under any of the following circumstances:
(a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
representative of the patient gives express consent.
(b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient
or the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives
express consent.
(c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim,
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the
Revised Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of
civil action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code
is filed by the patient, the personal representative of the
estate of the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or
other legal representative.
(2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)
(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)
(1)(c) of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to
testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil
Procedure only as to a communication made to the chiropractor by
the patient in question in that relation, or the chiropractor's
advice to the patient in question, that related causally or
historically to physical or mental injuries that are relevant to
issues in the medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim,
or optometric claim, action for wrongful death, other civil
action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.
(3) The testimonial privilege established under this
division does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be
compelled to testify, in any criminal action or administrative
proceeding.
(4) As used in this division, "communication" means
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary
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to enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a
patient. A communication may include, but is not limited to, any
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a
record, chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results,
x-ray, photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.
(K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this
section, a critical incident stress management team member
concerning a communication received from an individual who
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing
session.
(2) The testimonial privilege established under division
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following
are true:
(a) The communication or advice indicates clear and
present danger to the individual who receives crisis response
services or to other persons. For purposes of this division,
cases in which there are indications of present or past child
abuse or neglect of the individual constitute a clear and
present danger.
(b) The individual who received crisis response services
gives express consent to the testimony.
(c) If the individual who received crisis response
services is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or
administrator of the estate of the deceased individual gives
express consent.
(d) The individual who received crisis response services
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be
compelled to testify on the same subject.
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H. B. No. 343
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(e) The court in camera determines that the information
communicated by the individual who received crisis response
services is not germane to the relationship between the
individual and the team member.
(f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to
any criminal act.
(3) As used in division (K) of this section:
(a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services
provided by a critical incident stress management team to
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.
(b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide
crisis response services as a member of an organized community
or local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio
critical incident stress management network.
(c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.
(L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and
except as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an
employee assistance professional, concerning a communication
made to the employee assistance professional by a client in the
employee assistance professional's official capacity as an
employee assistance professional.
(2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee
assistance professional who meets either or both of the
following requirements:
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(a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;
(b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the
following:
(i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address
employer and employee productivity issues;
(ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees'
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees'
performance;
(iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the
following matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance
abuse or other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;
(iv) Selecting and evaluating available community
resources;
(v) Making appropriate referrals;
(vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;
(vii) Client confidentiality.
(3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any
of the following:
(a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony
relates directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the
offense;
(b) A communication made by a client to an employee
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assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;
(c) A communication that is made by a client who is an
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent
and indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or
abuse;
(d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by
reason of insanity is entered;
(e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against
the employee assistance professional;
(f) When the employee assistance professional has the
express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or
disabled, the client's legal representative;
(g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.
(M) A patient, concerning the patient's own reproductive
health care, including miscarriage and abortion history, unless
that patient consents to do so.
Sec. 2919.10. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Down syndrome" means a chromosome disorder associated
either with an extra chromosome twenty-one, in whole or in part,
or an effective trisomy for chromosome twenty-one.
(2) "Physician," "pregnant," and "unborn child" have the
same meanings as in section 2919.16 of the Revised Code.
(B) No person shall purposely perform or induce or attempt
to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman if the
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person has knowledge that the pregnant woman is seeking the
abortion, in whole or in part, because of any of the following:
(1) A test result indicating Down syndrome in an unborn
child;
(2) A prenatal diagnosis of Down syndrome in an unborn
child;
(3) Any other reason to believe that an unborn child has
Down syndrome.
(C) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is
guilty of performing or attempting to perform an abortion that
was being sought because of Down syndrome, a felony of the
fourth degree.
(D) The state medical board shall revoke a physician's
license to practice medicine in this state if the physician
violates division (B) of this section.
(E) Any physician who violates division (B) of this
section is liable in a civil action for compensatory and
exemplary damages and reasonable attorney's fees to any person,
or the representative of the estate of any person, who sustains
injury, death, or loss to person or property as the result of
the performance or inducement or the attempted performance or
inducement of the abortion. In any action under this division,
the court also may award any injunctive or other equitable
relief that the court considers appropriate.
(F) A pregnant woman on whom an abortion is performed or
induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of
division (B) of this section is not guilty of violating division
(B) of this section or of attempting to commit, conspiring to
commit, or complicity in committing a violation of division (B)
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of this section.
(G) If any provision of this section is held invalid, or
if the application of any provision of this section to any
person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that
provision does not affect any other provisions or applications
of this section and sections 2919.11 to 2919.193 2919.18 of the
Revised Code that can be given effect without the invalid
provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this
section and sections 2919.11 to 2919.193 2919.18 of the Revised
Code are severable as provided in section 1.50 of the Revised
Code. In particular, it is the intent of the general assembly
that any invalidity or potential invalidity of a provision of
this section is not to impair the immediate and continuing
enforceability of any other provisions of this section and
sections 2919.11 to 2919.193 2919.18 of the Revised Code. It is
furthermore the intent of the general assembly that the
provisions of this section are not to have the effect of
repealing or limiting any other laws of this state.
(H) The general assembly may, by joint resolution, appoint
one or more of its members who sponsored or cosponsored
___B___of the 132nd general assembly to intervene as a matter of
right in any case in which the constitutionality of this section
is challenged.
Sec. 2919.12. (A) No person shall perform or induce an
abortion without the informed consent of the pregnant woman.
(B)(1)(a) No person shall knowingly perform or induce an
abortion upon a woman who is pregnant, unmarried, under eighteen
years of age, and unemancipated unless at least one of the
following applies:
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(i) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the person
has given at least twenty-four hours actual notice, in person or
by telephone, to one of the woman's parents, her guardian, or
her custodian as to the intention to perform or induce the
abortion, provided that if the woman has requested, in
accordance with division (B)(1)(b) of this section, that notice
be given to a specified brother or sister of the woman who is
twenty-one years of age or older or to a specified stepparent or
grandparent of the woman instead of to one of her parents, her
guardian, or her custodian, and if the person is notified by a
juvenile court that affidavits of the type described in that
division have been filed with that court, the twenty-four hours
actual notice described in this division as to the intention to
perform or induce the abortion shall be given, in person or by
telephone, to the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or
grandparent instead of to the parent, guardian, or custodian;
(ii) One of the woman's parents, her guardian, or her
custodian has consented in writing to the performance or
inducement of the abortion;
(iii) A juvenile court pursuant to section 2151.85 of the
Revised Code issues an order authorizing the woman to consent to
the abortion without notification of one of her parents, her
guardian, or her custodian;
(iv) A juvenile court or a court of appeals, by its
inaction, constructively has authorized the woman to consent to
the abortion without notification of one of her parents, her
guardian, or her custodian under division (B)(1) of section
2151.85 or division (A) of section 2505.073 of the Revised Code.
(b) If a woman who is pregnant, unmarried, under eighteen
years of age, and unemancipated desires notification as to a
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person's intention to perform or induce an abortion on the woman
to be given to a specified brother or sister of the woman who is
twenty-one years of age or older or to a specified stepparent or
grandparent of the woman instead of to one of her parents, her
guardian, or her custodian, the person who intends to perform or
induce the abortion shall notify the specified brother, sister,
stepparent, or grandparent instead of the parent, guardian, or
custodian for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section
if all of the following apply:
(i) The woman has requested the person to provide the
notification to the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or
grandparent, clearly has identified the specified brother,
sister, stepparent, or grandparent and her relation to that
person, and, if the specified relative is a brother or sister,
has indicated the age of the brother or sister;
(ii) The woman has executed an affidavit stating that she
is in fear of physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse from
the parent, guardian, or custodian who otherwise would be
notified under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, and that
the fear is based on a pattern of physical, sexual, or severe
emotional abuse of her exhibited by that parent, guardian, or
custodian, has filed the affidavit with the juvenile court of
the county in which the woman has a residence or legal
settlement, the juvenile court of any county that borders to any
extent the county in which she has a residence or legal
settlement, or the juvenile court of the county in which the
hospital, clinic, or other facility in which the abortion would
be performed or induced is located, and has given the court
written notice of the name and address of the person who intends
to perform or induce the abortion;
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(iii) The specified brother, sister, stepparent, or
grandparent has executed an affidavit stating that the woman has
reason to fear physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse from
the parent, guardian, or custodian who otherwise would be
notified under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, based on a
pattern of physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse of her by
that parent, guardian, or custodian, and the woman or the
specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent has filed
the affidavit with the juvenile court in which the affidavit
described in division (B)(1)(b)(ii) of this section was filed;
(iv) The juvenile court in which the affidavits described
in divisions (B)(1)(b)(ii) and (iii) of this section were filed
has notified the person that both of those affidavits have been
filed with the court.
(c) If an affidavit of the type described in division (B)
(1)(b)(ii) of this section and an affidavit of the type
described in division (B)(1)(b)(iii) of this section are filed
with a juvenile court and the court has been provided with
written notice of the name and address of the person who intends
to perform or induce an abortion upon the woman to whom the
affidavits pertain, the court promptly shall notify the person
who intends to perform or induce the abortion that the
affidavits have been filed. If possible, the notice to the
person shall be given in person or by telephone.
(2) If division (B)(1)(a)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this
section does not apply, and if no parent, guardian, or custodian
can be reached for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this
section after a reasonable effort, or if notification is to be
given to a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent
under that division and the specified brother, sister,
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stepparent, or grandparent cannot be reached for purposes of
that division after a reasonable effort, no person shall perform
or induce such an abortion without giving at least forty-eight
hours constructive notice to one of the woman's parents, her
guardian, or her custodian, by both certified and ordinary mail
sent to the last known address of the parent, guardian, or
custodian, or if notification for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)
(i) of this section is to be given to a specified brother,
sister, stepparent, or grandparent, without giving at least
forty-eight hours constructive notice to that specified brother,
sister, stepparent, or grandparent by both certified and
ordinary mail sent to the last known address of that specified
brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent. The forty-eight-
hour period under this division begins when the certified mail
notice is mailed. If a parent, guardian, or custodian of the
woman, or if notification under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this
section is to be given to a specified brother, sister,
stepparent, or grandparent, the specified brother, sister,
stepparent, or grandparent, is not reached within the forty-
eight-hour period, the abortion may proceed even if the
certified mail notice is not received.
(3) If a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified
brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent who has been
notified in accordance with division (B)(1) or (2) of this
section clearly and unequivocally expresses that he or she such
person does not wish to consult with a pregnant woman prior to
her abortion, then the abortion may proceed without any further
waiting period.
(4) For purposes of prosecutions for a violation of
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, it shall be a rebuttable
presumption that a woman who is unmarried and under eighteen
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
years of age is unemancipated.
(C)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section that the pregnant woman
provided the person who performed or induced the abortion with
false, misleading, or incorrect information about her age,
marital status, or emancipation, about the age of a brother or
sister to whom she requested notice be given as a specified
relative instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her
custodian, or about the last known address of either of her
parents, her guardian, her custodian, or a specified brother,
sister, stepparent, or grandparent to whom she requested notice
be given and the person who performed or induced the abortion
did not otherwise have reasonable cause to believe the pregnant
woman was under eighteen years of age, unmarried, or
unemancipated, to believe that the age of a brother or sister to
whom she requested notice be given as a specified relative
instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian
was not twenty-one years of age, or to believe that the last
known address of either of her parents, her guardian, her
custodian, or a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or
grandparent to whom she requested notice be given was incorrect.
(2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this
section that compliance with the requirements of this section
was not possible because an immediate threat of serious risk to
the life or physical health of the pregnant woman from the
continuation of her pregnancy created an emergency necessitating
the immediate performance or inducement of an abortion.
(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful
abortion. A violation of division (A) of this section is a
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a
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H. B. No. 343
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felony of the fourth degree on each subsequent offense. A
violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of
the first degree on a first offense and a felony of the fifth
degree on each subsequent offense.
(E) Whoever violates this section is liable to the
pregnant woman and her parents, guardian, or custodian for civil
compensatory and exemplary damages.
(F) As used in this section "unemancipated" means that a
woman who is unmarried and under eighteen years of age has not
entered the armed services of the United States, has not become
employed and self-subsisting, or has not otherwise become
independent from the care and control of her parent, guardian,
or custodian.
Sec. 2953.25. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Collateral sanction" means a penalty, disability, or
disadvantage that is related to employment or occupational
licensing, however denominated, as a result of the individual's
conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense and that applies
by operation of law in this state whether or not the penalty,
disability, or disadvantage is included in the sentence or
judgment imposed.
"Collateral sanction" does not include imprisonment,
probation, parole, supervised release, forfeiture, restitution,
fine, assessment, or costs of prosecution.
(2) "Decision-maker" includes, but is not limited to, the
state acting through a department, agency, board, commission, or
instrumentality established by the law of this state for the
exercise of any function of government, a political subdivision,
an educational institution, or a government contractor or
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
subcontractor made subject to this section by contract, law, or
ordinance.
(3) "Department-funded program" means a residential or
nonresidential program that is not a term in a state
correctional institution, that is funded in whole or part by the
department of rehabilitation and correction, and that is imposed
as a sanction for an offense, as part of a sanction that is
imposed for an offense, or as a term or condition of any
sanction that is imposed for an offense.
(4) "Designee" means the person designated by the deputy
director of the division of parole and community services to
perform the duties designated in division (B) of this section.
(5) "Division of parole and community services" means the
division of parole and community services of the department of
rehabilitation and correction.
(6) "Offense" means any felony or misdemeanor under the
laws of this state.
(7) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in
section 2969.21 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Discretionary civil impact," "licensing agency," and
"mandatory civil impact" have the same meanings as in section
2961.21 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) An individual who is subject to one or more
collateral sanctions as a result of being convicted of or
pleading guilty to an offense and who either has served a term
in a state correctional institution for any offense or has spent
time in a department-funded program for any offense may file a
petition with the designee of the deputy director of the
division of parole and community services for a certificate of
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H. B. No. 343
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qualification for employment.
(2) An individual who is subject to one or more collateral
sanctions as a result of being convicted of or pleading guilty
to an offense and who is not in a category described in division
(B)(1) of this section may file for a certificate of
qualification for employment by doing either of the following:
(a) In the case of an individual who resides in this
state, filing a petition with the court of common pleas of the
county in which the person resides or with the designee of the
deputy director of the division of parole and community
services;
(b) In the case of an individual who resides outside of
this state, filing a petition with the court of common pleas of
any county in which any conviction or plea of guilty from which
the individual seeks relief was entered or with the designee of
the deputy director of the division of parole and community
services.
(3) A petition under division (B)(1) or (2) of this
section shall be made on a copy of the form prescribed by the
division of parole and community services under division (J) of
this section, shall contain all of the information described in
division (F) of this section, and, except as provided in
division (B)(6) of this section, shall be accompanied by an
application fee of fifty dollars and may be accompanied by a
local court fee of not more than fifty dollars.
(4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this
section, an individual may file a petition under division (B)(1)
or (2) of this section at any time after the expiration of
whichever of the following is applicable:
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H. B. No. 343
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(i) If the offense that resulted in the collateral
sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a felony, at
any time after the expiration of one year from the date of
release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a
state or local correctional facility that was imposed for that
offense and all periods of supervision imposed after release
from the period of incarceration or, if the individual was not
incarcerated for that offense, at any time after the expiration
of one year from the date of the individual's final release from
all other sanctions imposed for that offense.
(ii) If the offense that resulted in the collateral
sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a
misdemeanor, at any time after the expiration of six months from
the date of release of the individual from any period of
incarceration in a local correctional facility that was imposed
for that offense and all periods of supervision imposed after
release from the period of incarceration or, if the individual
was not incarcerated for that offense, at any time after the
expiration of six months from the date of the final release of
the individual from all sanctions imposed for that offense
including any period of supervision.
(b) The department of rehabilitation and correction may
establish criteria by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code that, if satisfied by an individual, would allow
the individual to file a petition before the expiration of six
months or one year from the date of final release, whichever is
applicable under division (B)(4)(a) of this section.
(5)(a) A designee that receives a petition for a
certificate of qualification for employment from an individual
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall review the
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H. B. No. 343
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petition to determine whether it is complete. If the petition is
complete, the designee shall forward the petition, the
application fee, and any other information the designee
possesses that relates to the petition, to the court of common
pleas of the county in which the individual resides if the
individual submitting the petition resides in this state or, if
the individual resides outside of this state, to the court of
common pleas of the county in which the conviction or plea of
guilty from which the individual seeks relief was entered.
(b) A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a
certificate of qualification for employment from an individual
under division (B)(2) of this section, or that is forwarded a
petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this
section, shall attempt to determine all other courts in this
state in which the individual was convicted of or pleaded guilty
to an offense other than the offense from which the individual
is seeking relief. The court that receives or is forwarded the
petition shall notify all other courts in this state that it
determines under this division were courts in which the
individual was convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense
other than the offense from which the individual is seeking
relief that the individual has filed the petition and that the
court may send comments regarding the possible issuance of the
certificate.
A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a
certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)
(2) of this section shall notify the county's prosecuting
attorney that the individual has filed the petition.
A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a
certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)
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(2) of this section, or that is forwarded a petition for
qualification under division (B)(5)(a) of this section may
direct the clerk of court to process and record all notices
required in or under this section. Except as provided in
division (B)(6) of this section, the court shall pay thirty
dollars of the application fee into the state treasury and
twenty dollars of the application fee into the county general
revenue fund.
(6) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of
qualification for employment filed by an individual under
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, a court of common pleas
or the designee of the deputy director of the division of parole
and community services who receives the petition may waive all
or part of the application fee of fifty dollars described in
division (B)(3) of this section, for an applicant who presents a
poverty affidavit showing that the applicant is indigent. If an
applicant pays an application fee, the first twenty dollars or
two-fifths of the fee, whichever is greater, that is collected
shall be paid into the county general revenue fund. If an
applicant pays an application fee, the amount collected in
excess of the amount to be paid into the county general revenue
fund shall be paid into the state treasury.
(C)(1) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of
qualification for employment filed by an individual under
division (B)(2) of this section or being forwarded a petition
for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section,
the court shall review the individual's petition, the
individual's criminal history, except for information contained
in any record that has been sealed under section 2953.32 of the
Revised Code, all filings submitted by the prosecutor or by the
victim in accordance with rules adopted by the division of
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parole and community services, the applicant's military service
record, if applicable, and whether the applicant has an
emotional, mental, or physical condition that is traceable to
the applicant's military service in the armed forces of the
United States and that was a contributing factor in the
commission of the offense or offenses, and all other relevant
evidence. The court may order any report, investigation, or
disclosure by the individual that the court believes is
necessary for the court to reach a decision on whether to
approve the individual's petition for a certificate of
qualification for employment, except that the court shall not
require an individual to disclose information about any record
sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code.
(2) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of
qualification for employment filed by an individual under
division (B)(2) of this section or being forwarded a petition
for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section,
except as otherwise provided in this division, the court shall
decide whether to issue the certificate within sixty days after
the court receives or is forwarded the completed petition and
all information requested for the court to make that decision.
Upon request of the individual who filed the petition, the court
may extend the sixty-day period specified in this division.
(3) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section
and subject to division (C)(7) of this section, a court that
receives an individual's petition for a certificate of
qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this
section or that is forwarded a petition for such a certificate
under division (B)(5)(a) of this section may issue a certificate
of qualification for employment, at the court's discretion, if
the court finds that the individual has established all of the
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As Introduced
following by a preponderance of the evidence:
(a) Granting the petition will materially assist the
individual in obtaining employment or occupational licensing.
(b) The individual has a substantial need for the relief
requested in order to live a law-abiding life.
(c) Granting the petition would not pose an unreasonable
risk to the safety of the public or any individual.
(4) The submission of an incomplete petition by an
individual shall not be grounds for the designee or court to
deny the petition.
(5) Subject to division (C)(6) of this section, an
individual is rebuttably presumed to be eligible for a
certificate of qualification for employment if the court that
receives the individual's petition under division (B)(2) of this
section or that is forwarded a petition under division (B)(5)(a)
of this section finds all of the following:
(a) The application was filed after the expiration of the
applicable waiting period prescribed in division (B)(4) of this
section;
(b) If the offense that resulted in the collateral
sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a felony, at
least three years have elapsed since the date of release of the
individual from any period of incarceration in a state or local
correctional facility that was imposed for that offense and all
periods of supervision imposed after release from the period of
incarceration or, if the individual was not incarcerated for
that offense, at least three years have elapsed since the date
of the individual's final release from all other sanctions
imposed for that offense;
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(c) If the offense that resulted in the collateral
sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a
misdemeanor, at least one year has elapsed since the date of
release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a
local correctional facility that was imposed for that offense
and all periods of supervision imposed after release from the
period of incarceration or, if the individual was not
incarcerated for that offense, at least one year has elapsed
since the date of the final release of the individual from all
sanctions imposed for that offense including any period of
supervision.
(6) An application that meets all of the requirements for
the presumption under division (C)(5) of this section shall be
denied only if the court that receives the petition finds that
the evidence reviewed under division (C)(1) of this section
rebuts the presumption of eligibility for issuance by
establishing, by clear and convincing evidence, that the
applicant has not been rehabilitated.
(7) A certificate of qualification for employment shall
not create relief from any of the following collateral
sanctions:
(a) Requirements imposed by Chapter 2950. of the Revised
Code and rules adopted under sections 2950.13 and 2950.132 of
the Revised Code;
(b) A driver's license, commercial driver's license, or
probationary license suspension, cancellation, or revocation
pursuant to section 4510.037, 4510.07, 4511.19, or 4511.191 of
the Revised Code if the relief sought is available pursuant to
section 4510.021 or division (B) of section 4510.13 of the
Revised Code;
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(c) Restrictions on employment as a prosecutor or law
enforcement officer;
(d) The denial, ineligibility, or automatic suspension of
a license that is imposed upon an individual applying for or
holding a license as a health care professional under Title
XLVII of the Revised Code if the individual is convicted of,
pleads guilty to, is subject to a judicial finding of
eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state
under section 2951.041 of the Revised Code, or is subject to
treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction for a violation
of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2907.02,
2907.03, 2907.05, 2909.02, 2911.01, 2911.11, or 2919.123, or
2919.124 of the Revised Code;
(e) The immediate suspension of a license, certificate, or
evidence of registration that is imposed upon an individual
holding a license as a health care professional under Title
XLVII of the Revised Code pursuant to division (C) of section
3719.121 of the Revised Code;
(f) The denial or ineligibility for employment in a pain
clinic under division (B)(4) of section 4729.552 of the Revised
Code;
(g) The mandatory suspension of a license that is imposed
on an individual applying for or holding a license as a health
care professional under Title XLVII of the Revised Code pursuant
to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code.
(8) If a court that receives an individual's petition for
a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)
(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition for such a
certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section denies the
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petition, the court shall provide written notice to the
individual of the court's denial. The court may place conditions
on the individual regarding the individual's filing of any
subsequent petition for a certificate of qualification for
employment. The written notice must notify the individual of any
conditions placed on the individual's filing of a subsequent
petition for a certificate of qualification for employment.
If a court of common pleas that receives an individual's
petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under
division (B)(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition
for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section
denies the petition, the individual may appeal the decision to
the court of appeals only if the individual alleges that the
denial was an abuse of discretion on the part of the court of
common pleas.
(D)(1) A certificate of qualification for employment
issued to an individual lifts the automatic bar of a collateral
sanction, and a decision-maker shall consider on a case-by-case
basis whether to grant or deny the issuance or restoration of an
occupational license or an employment opportunity,
notwithstanding the individual's possession of the certificate,
without, however, reconsidering or rejecting any finding made by
a designee or court under division (C)(3) of this section.
(2) The certificate constitutes a rebuttable presumption
that the person's criminal convictions are insufficient evidence
that the person is unfit for the license, employment
opportunity, or certification in question. Notwithstanding the
presumption established under this division, the agency may deny
the license or certification for the person if it determines
that the person is unfit for issuance of the license.
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(3) If an employer that has hired a person who has been
issued a certificate of qualification for employment applies to
a licensing agency for a license or certification and the person
has a conviction or guilty plea that otherwise would bar the
person's employment with the employer or licensure for the
employer because of a mandatory civil impact, the agency shall
give the person individualized consideration, notwithstanding
the mandatory civil impact, the mandatory civil impact shall be
considered for all purposes to be a discretionary civil impact,
and the certificate constitutes a rebuttable presumption that
the person's criminal convictions are insufficient evidence that
the person is unfit for the employment, or that the employer is
unfit for the license or certification, in question.
(E) A certificate of qualification for employment does not
grant the individual to whom the certificate was issued relief
from the mandatory civil impacts identified in division (A)(1)
of section 2961.01 or division (B) of section 2961.02 of the
Revised Code.
(F) A petition for a certificate of qualification for
employment filed by an individual under division (B)(1) or (2)
of this section shall include all of the following:
(1) The individual's name, date of birth, and social
security number;
(2) All aliases of the individual and all social security
numbers associated with those aliases;
(3) The individual's residence address, including the
city, county, and state of residence and zip code;
(4) The length of time that the individual has resided in
the individual's current state of residence, expressed in years
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and months of residence;
(5) A general statement as to why the individual has filed
the petition and how the certificate of qualification for
employment would assist the individual;
(6) A summary of the individual's criminal history, except
for information contained in any record that has been sealed or
expunged under section 2953.32 or 2953.39 of the Revised Code,
with respect to each offense that is a disqualification from
employment or licensing in an occupation or profession,
including the years of each conviction or plea of guilty for
each of those offenses;
(7) A summary of the individual's employment history,
specifying the name of, and dates of employment with, each
employer;
(8) Verifiable references and endorsements;
(9) The name of one or more immediate family members of
the individual, or other persons with whom the individual has a
close relationship, who support the individual's reentry plan;
(10) A summary of the reason the individual believes the
certificate of qualification for employment should be granted;
(11) Any other information required by rule by the
department of rehabilitation and correction.
(G)(1) In a judicial or administrative proceeding alleging
negligence or other fault, a certificate of qualification for
employment issued to an individual under this section may be
introduced as evidence of a person's due care in hiring,
retaining, licensing, leasing to, admitting to a school or
program, or otherwise transacting business or engaging in
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activity with the individual to whom the certificate of
qualification for employment was issued if the person knew of
the certificate at the time of the alleged negligence or other
fault.
(2) In any proceeding on a claim against an employer for
negligent hiring, a certificate of qualification for employment
issued to an individual under this section shall provide
immunity for the employer as to the claim if the employer knew
of the certificate at the time of the alleged negligence.
(3) If an employer hires an individual who has been issued
a certificate of qualification for employment under this
section, if the individual, after being hired, subsequently
demonstrates dangerousness or is convicted of or pleads guilty
to a felony, and if the employer retains the individual as an
employee after the demonstration of dangerousness or the
conviction or guilty plea, the employer may be held liable in a
civil action that is based on or relates to the retention of the
individual as an employee only if it is proved by a
preponderance of the evidence that the person having hiring and
firing responsibility for the employer had actual knowledge that
the employee was dangerous or had been convicted of or pleaded
guilty to the felony and was willful in retaining the individual
as an employee after the demonstration of dangerousness or the
conviction or guilty plea of which the person has actual
knowledge.
(H) A certificate of qualification for employment issued
under this section shall be revoked if the individual to whom
the certificate of qualification for employment was issued is
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony offense committed
subsequent to the issuance of the certificate of qualification
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for employment. The department of rehabilitation and correction
shall periodically review the certificates listed in the
database described in division (K) of this section to identify
those that are subject to revocation under this division. Upon
identifying a certificate of qualification for employment that
is subject to revocation, the department shall note in the
database that the certificate has been revoked, the reason for
revocation, and the effective date of revocation, which shall be
the date of the conviction or plea of guilty subsequent to the
issuance of the certificate.
(I) A designee's forwarding, or failure to forward, a
petition for a certificate of qualification for employment to a
court or a court's issuance, or failure to issue, a petition for
a certificate of qualification for employment to an individual
under division (B) of this section does not give rise to a claim
for damages against the department of rehabilitation and
correction or court.
(J) The division of parole and community services shall
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code
for the implementation and administration of this section and
shall prescribe the form for the petition to be used under
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section. The form for the
petition shall include places for all of the information
specified in division (F) of this section.
(K) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall
maintain a database that identifies granted certificates and
revoked certificates and tracks the number of certificates
granted and revoked, the industries, occupations, and
professions with respect to which the certificates have been
most applicable, and the types of employers that have accepted
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the certificates. The department shall annually create a report
that summarizes the information maintained in the database and
shall make the report available to the public on its internet
web site.
Sec. 3701.341. (A) The director of health, pursuant to
Chapter 119. and consistent with Chapter 3726. and section
2317.56 of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules relating to
abortions and the following subjects:
(1) Post-abortion procedures to protect the health of the
pregnant woman;
(2) Pathological reports;
(3) Humane disposition of the product of human conception;
(4) Counseling.
(B) The director of health shall implement the rules and
shall apply to the court of common pleas for temporary or
permanent injunctions restraining a violation or threatened
violation of the rules. This action is an additional remedy not
dependent on the adequacy of the remedy at law.
Sec. 3701.792. (A) The director of health shall develop a
child survival form to be submitted to the department of health
in accordance with division (B) of this section each time a
child is born alive after an abortion or attempted abortion. In
developing the form, the director may consult with
obstetricians, maternal-fetal specialists, or any other
professionals the director considers appropriate. The form shall
include areas for all of the following to be provided:
(1) The patient number for the woman on whom the abortion
was performed or attempted;
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(2) The name, primary business address, and signature of
the attending physician described in section 3701.79 of the
Revised Code who performed or attempted to perform the abortion;
(3) The name and address of the facility in which the
abortion was performed or attempted, and whether the facility is
a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, physician's office, or
other facility;
(4) The date the abortion was performed or attempted;
(5) The type of abortion procedure that was performed or
attempted;
(6) The gestational age of the child who was born;
(7) Complications, by type, for both the woman and child;
(8) Any other information the director considers
appropriate.
(B) The attending physician who performed or attempted an
abortion in which a child was born alive after that event shall
complete a child survival form developed under division (A) of
this section. The physician shall submit the completed form to
the department of health not later than fifteen days after the
woman is discharged from the facility.
A completed child survival form is confidential and not a
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(C) A copy of the child survival form completed under this
section shall be made part of the medical record maintained for
the woman by the facility in which the abortion was performed or
attempted.
(D) Each facility in which an abortion was performed or
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attempted and in which a child was born alive after that event
shall submit monthly and annual reports to the department of
health listing the total number of women on whom an abortion was
performed or attempted at the facility and in which a child was
born alive after that event, delineated by the type of abortion
procedure that was performed or attempted. The annual report
shall be submitted following the conclusion of the state's
fiscal year. Each monthly or annual report shall be submitted
not later than thirty days after the end of the applicable
reporting period.
(E) Not later than the first day of October of each year,
the department shall issue an annual report of the data
submitted to the department for the previous calendar year as
required by this section. At a minimum, the annual report shall
specify the number of women on whom an abortion was performed or
attempted and in which a child was born alive after that event,
delineated by the type of abortion procedure that was performed
or attempted and the facility in which the abortion was
performed or attempted. The report shall not contain any
information that would permit the identity of a woman on whom an
abortion was performed or attempted or any child to be
ascertained.
(F) No person shall purposely fail to comply with the
child survival form submission requirement described in division
(B) of this section or the copy maintenance requirement
described in division (C) of this section.
(G) No person shall purposely fail to comply with the
monthly or annual report submission requirements described in
division (D) of this section.
(H) A woman on whom an abortion is performed or attempted
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H. B. No. 343
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may file a civil action against a person who violates division
(F) or (G) or this section. A woman who prevails in an action
filed under this division shall receive both of the following
from the person who committed the violation:
(1) Damages in the amount of ten thousand dollars;
(2) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees.
(I) As used in this section:
(1) "Abortion" has the same meaning as in section 2919.11
of the Revised Code.
(2) "Ambulatory surgical facility" has the same meaning as
in section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Hospital" means any building, structure, institution,
or place devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of
facilities for the diagnosis, treatment, and medical or surgical
care for three or more unrelated individuals having illness,
disease, injury, or deformity, and regularly making available at
least clinical laboratory services, diagnostic x-ray services,
treatment facilities for surgery or obstetrical care, or other
definitive medical treatment. "Hospital" does not include a
"home" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Physician's office" means an office or portion of an
office that is used to provide medical or surgical services to
the physician's patients. "Physician's office" does not mean an
ambulatory surgical facility, a hospital, or a hospital
emergency department.
Sec. 3702.30. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility in
which surgical services are provided to patients who do not
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H. B. No. 343
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require hospitalization for inpatient care, the duration of
services for any patient does not extend beyond twenty-four
hours after the patient's admission, and to which any of the
following apply:
(a) The surgical services are provided in a building that
is separate from another building in which inpatient care is
provided, regardless of whether the separate building is part of
the same organization as the building in which inpatient care is
provided.
(b) The surgical services are provided within a building
in which inpatient care is provided and the entity that operates
the portion of the building where the surgical services are
provided is not the entity that operates the remainder of the
building.
(c) The facility is held out to any person or government
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.
"Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital
emergency department or an office of a physician, podiatrist, or
dentist.
(2) "Health care facility" means any of the following:
(a) An ambulatory surgical facility;
(b) A freestanding dialysis center;
(c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;
(d) A freestanding birthing center;
(e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;
(f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.
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(B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12
and 3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall
establish quality standards for health care facilities. The
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other
quality standards established by any entity recognized by the
director.
In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the
standards shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to
maintain an infection control program. The purposes of the
program are to minimize infections and communicable diseases and
facilitate a functional and sanitary environment consistent with
standards of professional practice. To achieve these purposes,
ambulatory surgical facility staff managing the program shall
create and administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and
manage infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the
program is directed by a qualified professional trained in
infection control; ensure that the program is an integral part
of the ambulatory surgical facility's quality assessment and
performance improvement program; and implement in an expeditious
manner corrective and preventive measures that result in
improvement.
(C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.
(D) The director shall issue a license to each health care
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates
to the director that it meets the quality standards established
by the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and
satisfies the informed consent compliance requirements specified
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in division (C) of this section.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) of this section
and in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care
facility shall operate without a license issued under this
section.
The general assembly does not intend for the provisions of
this section or section 3702.301 of the Revised Code that
establish health care facility licensing requirements or
exemptions to have an effect on any third-party payments that
may be available for the services provided by either a licensed
health care facility or an entity exempt from licensure.
(2) If the department of health finds that a physician who
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of
informed consent from a patient, the department shall report its
finding to the state medical board, the physician, and the
health care facility.
(3) Division (E)(2) of this section does not create, and
shall not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or
substantive legal right against a health care facility and in
favor of a patient who allegedly sustains harm as a result of
the failure of the patient's physician to obtain informed
consent from the patient prior to performing a procedure on or
otherwise caring for the patient in the health care facility.
(F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section
shall include all of the following:
(1) Provisions governing application for, renewal,
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;
(2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section
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3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided
by a health care facility;
(3) Provisions governing the imposition under section
3702.32 of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of
this section or the rules adopted under this section, including
a scale for determining the amount of the penalties;
(4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use
when conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.
(G) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or
induces abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the
Revised Code.
(H) The following entities are not required to obtain a
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under
this section:
(1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;
(2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital
accreditation or certification program and that provides
diagnostic imaging;
(3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides
diagnostic imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of
a surgical procedure.
Sec. 3732.01.
As used in sections 3732.01 to 3732.06 of
the Revised Code:
(A) "Collect" means for a regulated entity to obtain
personal reproductive or sexual health information in any
manner.
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(B) "Commerce" has the same meaning as in the "Federal
Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 44.
(C) "Disclose" means for a regulated entity to release,
transfer, sell, provide access to, license, or divulge personal
reproductive or sexual health information in any manner to a
third party, including the federal government, the state, any
political subdivision, or a law enforcement agency.
(D)(1) "Express consent" means informed, opt-in,
voluntary, specific, and unambiguous written consent, including
by electronic means, to collecting, retaining, using, or
disclosing personal reproductive or sexual health information.
(2) "Express consent" does not include any of the
following:
(a) Consent secured without first providing to the
individual a clear and conspicuous disclosure, apart from any
privacy policy, terms of service, terms of use, general release,
user agreement, or other similar document, of all information
material to the provision of consent;
(b) Hovering over, muting, pausing, or closing a given
piece of content;
(c) Agreement obtained through the use of a user interface
designed or manipulated with the substantial effect of
subverting or impairing user autonomy, decision-making, or
choice.
(E) "Personal information" means information that
identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of
being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly
or indirectly to, a particular individual.
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(F) "Personal reproductive or sexual health information"
means personal information relating to the past, present, or
future reproductive or sexual health of an individual, including
any of the following:
(1) Efforts to research or obtain reproductive or sexual
information, services, or supplies, including location
information that might indicate an attempt to acquire or receive
such information, services, or supplies;
(2) Reproductive or sexual health conditions, status,
diseases, or diagnoses, including pregnancy, menstruation,
ovulation, and the ability to conceive a pregnancy, regardless
of whether such individual is sexually active, and whether such
individual is engaging in unprotected sex;
(3) Reproductive and sexual health-related surgeries or
procedures, including the termination of a pregnancy;
(4) Use or purchase of contraceptives, birth control, or
any medication related to reproductive health, including
abortifacients;
(5) Bodily functions, vital signs, measurements, or
symptoms related to menstruation or pregnancy, such as basal
temperature, cramps, bodily discharge, or hormone levels;
(6) Any information about diagnoses or diagnostic testing,
treatment, medications, or the use of any product or service
relating to the matters described in divisions (F)(1) to (5) of
this section;
(7) Any information described in divisions (F)(1) to (6)
of this section that is derived or extrapolated from non-health
information, including proxy, derivative, inferred, emergent, or
algorithmic data.
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(G)(1) "Regulated entity" means any entity, to the extent
the entity is engaged in activities in or affecting commerce,
that is either:
(a) A person, partnership, or corporation subject to the
jurisdiction of the federal trade commission under section 5(a)
(2) of the "Federal Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 45(a)(2);
(b) Notwithstanding section 4, 5(a)(2), or 6 of the
"Federal Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 44; 45(a)(2); 46, or
any jurisdictional limitation of the commission, either of the
following:
(i) A common carrier subject to the "Communications Act of
1934,"47 U.S.C. 151 et seq.;
(ii) An organization not organized to carry on business
for its own profit or that of its members.
(2) "Regulated entity" does not include any of the
following:
(a) An entity that is a covered entity, as defined in 45
C.F.R. 160.103, to the extent the entity is acting as a covered
entity under the HIPAA privacy regulations, as defined in
section 1180(b)(3) of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C.
1320d–9(b)(3);
(b) An entity that is a business associate, as defined in
45 C.F.R. 160.103, to the extent the entity is acting as a
business associate under the HIPAA privacy regulations, as
defined in section 1180(b)(3) of the "Social Security Act," 42
U.S.C. 1320d–9(b)(3);
(c) An entity that is subject to restrictions on
disclosure of records under section 543 of the "Public Health
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Service Act," 42 U.S.C. 290dd–2, to the extent the entity is
acting in a capacity subject to the restrictions.
(H)(1) "Service provider" means a person to whom both of
the following apply:
(a) Collects, retains, uses, or discloses personal
reproductive or sexual health information for the sole purpose
of, and only to the extent that the person is, conducting
business activities on behalf of, for the benefit of, under
instruction of, and under contractual agreement with a regulated
entity and not any other individual or entity;
(b) Does not divulge personal reproductive or sexual
health information to any individual or entity other than such
regulated entity or a contractor to such service provider bound
to information processing terms not less restrictive than terms
to which the service provider is bound.
(2) A person shall only be considered a service provider
in the course of activities described in division (H)(1)(a) of
this section.
(I) "Third party" means any person who is not any of the
following:
(1) The regulated entity that is disclosing or collecting
personal reproductive or sexual health information;
(2) The individual to whom the personal reproductive or
sexual health information relates;
(3) A service provider.
Sec. 3732.02.
(A) A regulated entity shall not collect,
retain, use, or disclose personal reproductive or sexual health
information, except under either of the following circumstances:
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(1) With the express consent of the individual to whom
such information relates;
(2) As is strictly necessary to provide a product or
service that the individual to whom the information relates has
requested from the regulated entity.
(B) A regulated entity shall restrict access to personal
reproductive or sexual health information to the employees or
service providers of the regulated entity for which access is
necessary to provide a product or service that the individual to
whom the information relates has requested from the regulated
entity.
(C) For purposes of compliance with this section by a
service provider of a regulated entity, a request from an
individual to the regulated entity for a product or service, and
an express consent from the individual to the regulated entity,
shall be treated as having also been provided to the service
provider.
Sec. 3732.03.
(A)(1) A regulated entity shall make
available a reasonable mechanism by which an individual, upon a
verified request, may access both of the following:
(a) Any personal reproductive or sexual health information
relating to the individual that is retained by the regulated
entity, including both of the following:
(i) In the case of the information that the regulated
entity collected from third parties, how and from which specific
third parties the regulated entity collected the information;
(ii) The information that the regulated entity inferred
about the individual.
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(b) A list of the specific third parties to which the
regulated entity has disclosed any personal reproductive or
sexual health information relating to such individual.
(2) A regulated entity shall make the information
described in division (A)(1) of this section available in both a
human-readable format and a structured, interoperable, and
machine-readable format.
(B)(1) A regulated entity shall make available a
reasonable mechanism by which an individual, upon a verified
request, may request the deletion of any personal reproductive
or sexual health information relating to the individual that is
retained by the regulated entity, including any information that
the regulated entity collected from a third party or inferred
from other information retained by the regulated entity.
(2) A regulated entity shall comply with a verified
request received under this section without undue delay but not
later than fifteen days after the date on which such regulated
entity receives the verified request.
(3) A regulated entity shall not charge a fee to an
individual for a request made under this section.
(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require
a regulated entity to do any of the following:
(1) Take an action that would convert information that is
not personal information into personal information;
(2) Collect or retain personal information that the
regulated entity would otherwise not collect or retain;
(3) Retain personal information longer than the regulated
entity would otherwise retain the information.
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(D) For purposes of this section, "reasonable mechanism"
means, with respect to a regulated entity and a right under
division (B) of this section, a mechanism to which both of the
following apply:
(1) It is equivalent in availability and ease of use to
that of other mechanisms for communicating or interacting with
the regulated entity.
(2) It includes an online means of exercising the right
described under division (B) of this section.
Sec. 3732.04.
(A) A regulated entity shall maintain a
privacy policy relating to the practices of the regulated entity
regarding the collecting, retaining, using, and disclosing of
personal reproductive or sexual health information.
(B) If a regulated entity has a web site, it shall
prominently publish the privacy policy on the web site.
(C) The privacy policy shall be clear and conspicuous and
shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of the practices of the regulated entity
regarding the collecting, retaining, using, and disclosing of
personal reproductive or sexual health information;
(2) A clear and concise statement of the categories of the
information collected, retained, used, or disclosed by the
regulated entity;
(3) A clear and concise statement of the purposes of the
regulated entity for the collecting, retaining, using, or
disclosing of the information;
(4) A list of the specific third parties to which the
regulated entity discloses the information, and a clear and
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concise statement of the purposes for which the regulated entity
discloses the information, including how the information may be
used by each such third party;
(5) A list of the specific third parties from which the
regulated entity has collected the information, and a clear and
concise statement of the purposes for which the regulated entity
collects the information;
(6) A clear and concise statement describing the extent to
which individuals may exercise control over the collecting,
retaining, using, and disclosing of personal reproductive or
sexual health information by the regulated entity, and the steps
an individual must take to implement such controls;
(7) A clear and concise statement describing the efforts
of the regulated entity to protect personal reproductive or
sexual health information from unauthorized disclosure.
Sec. 3732.05.
(A) Any individual alleging a violation of
sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code may bring a
civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.
(B) In a civil action brought under this section in which
the plaintiff prevails, the court may award the following:
(1) An amount not less than one hundred dollars and not
greater than one thousand dollars per violation per day, or
actual damages, whichever is greater;
(2) Punitive damages;
(3) Reasonable attorneys' fees and litigation costs;
(4) Any other relief, including equitable or declaratory
relief, that the court determines appropriate.
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(C) A violation of sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the
Revised Code constitutes a concrete and particularized injury in
fact to the individual to whom such information relates.
(D)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no pre-
dispute arbitration agreement or pre-dispute joint-action waiver
is valid or enforceable with respect to a dispute arising under
sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code.
(2) Any determination as to whether or how division (D) of
this section applies to any dispute shall be made by a court,
rather than an arbitrator, without regard to whether the
agreement purports to delegate the determination to an
arbitrator.
(E) For purposes of this section:
(1) "Pre-dispute arbitration agreement" means any
agreement to arbitrate a dispute that has not arisen at the time
of the making of the agreement.
(2) "Pre-dispute joint-action waiver" means an agreement
that would prohibit a party from participating in a joint,
class, or collective action in a judicial, arbitral,
administrative, or other forum, concerning a dispute that has
not yet arisen at the time of the making of the agreement.
Sec. 3732.06.
(A) A violation of sections 3732.02 to
3732.04 of the Revised Code is an unfair or deceptive act or
practice in violation of section 1345.02 of the Revised Code. A
person injured by a violation of those sections has a cause of
action and is entitled to the same relief available to a
consumer under section 1345.09 of the Revised Code.
(B) The attorney general shall enforce sections 3732.02 to
3732.04 of the Revised Code in the same manner, by the same
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means, and with the same jurisdiction, powers, and duties as
applicable for violations of sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of the
Revised Code. Any regulated entity that violates those sections
is subject to the provisions, including penalties, of Chapter
1345. of the Revised Code.
(C) The attorney general may adopt rules as necessary to
implement and enforce sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised
Code. Any rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119.
of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3732.07.
As used in sections 3732.07 to 3732.09 of
the Revised Code:
(A) "Abusive litigant" means a person who voluntarily
initiates or intervenes in abusive litigation.
(B) "Abusive litigation" means litigation or other legal
action, whether civil or criminal in nature, that is intended to
deter, prevent, sanction or punish any person providing or
obtaining reproductive health care, or assisting another to
receive or provide reproductive health care by either of the
following:
(1) Filing or prosecuting any action where liability, in
whole or in part, is based on reproductive health care that
occurred in Ohio, was provided in Ohio, or was intended to be
obtained or provided in Ohio, including any action in which
liability is based on any theory of vicarious, joint, or several
liability derived therefrom;
(2) Attempting to enforce any order or judgment issued in
connection with any action described in division (B)(1) of this
section against an Ohio protected party.
(C) "Contraception" means any medication, device,
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procedure, or practice designed or employed to prevent
pregnancy, the use of which is lawful in Ohio.
(D) "Protected party" means a reproductive health care
provider, a reproductive health care helper, or an individual
accessing or seeking to access reproductive health care in Ohio.
(E) "Reproductive health care" means all medical,
surgical, counseling, or referral services that are lawful in
Ohio or the receipt of products relating to the human
reproductive system that is lawful in Ohio, including services
or products relating to the use or intended use of a particular
medicine or device, medical service or procedure, practice, or
similar intervention, that are related to the human reproductive
system, including fertility-related medical procedures or
medicines; sexually transmitted disease prevention, testing, or
treatment; gender affirming care; and family planning services
and counseling, such as those related to birth control
medication or supplies, other contraception methods,
sterilization procedures, pregnancy testing, or the intended or
actual initiation or termination of a pregnancy.
(F) "Reproductive health care helper" means a person who
facilitates or otherwise has supported or is supporting an
individual in seeking or receiving reproductive health care in
Ohio, including a person who provides funding, lodging,
transportation, doula services, information, data sharing
services such as electronic medical records programs, or other
financial or practical support to an individual seeking or
receiving reproductive health care.
(G) "Take part in abusive litigation" means to voluntarily
engage in abusive litigation without legal compulsion in a
manner that is intended to deter, prevent, sanction, or punish a
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protected party for such party's connection to reproductive
health care in Ohio.
(H) "Wrongful action" means the procurement, initiation,
or continuation of abusive litigation that causes harm to a
protected party where any of the following apply:
(1) An Ohio court definitively concludes that the abusive
litigation is plainly baseless as a matter of law.
(2) The abusive litigation at issue was voluntarily
withdrawn or dismissed and there was no objective basis to
conclude the abusive litigation would result in an enforceable
judgment against the protected party.
(3) The abusive litigation was dismissed by a court and
there was no objective basis to conclude the abusive litigation
would result in an enforceable judgment against the protected
party.
(4) An abusive litigant has obtained a judgment in a
foreign state through abusive litigation and sought to enforce
such judgment in Ohio but enforcement has been refused because
the judgment is penal in nature or proscribes future conduct,
the original court lacked jurisdiction, or the court has
otherwise recognized an exception to recognition of such
judgment, and there was no objective basis to conclude the
judgment would be enforceable against the protected party in
Ohio.
(5) An abusive litigant has collected on a judgment
obtained through abusive litigation predicated, in whole or in
material part, on conduct that occurred in Ohio and to which all
of the following apply:
(a) The conduct was lawful in Ohio at the time it took
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place.
(b) There is no comparable cause of action or liability
under Ohio law.
(c) There is no law or legal principle that prevents the
recoupment of damages for the harm caused to the protected party
aggrieved by such abusive litigation.
Sec. 3732.08.
(A) No person shall take part in abusive
litigation against any Ohio reproductive health care patient,
that such person knows or should know will constitute a wrongful
action where liability, in whole or in part, is based on an
individual seeking or receiving reproductive health care in Ohio
that is lawful in Ohio.
(B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this
section, no person shall take part in abusive litigation against
a reproductive health care provider or reproductive health care
helper that such person knows or should know will constitute a
wrongful action where liability, in whole or in part, is related
to either of the following:
(a) The alleged provision of, the alleged seeking of, or
an individual allegedly receiving reproductive health care in
Ohio;
(b) The alleged aiding or assisting in the provision,
seeking, or receipt of reproductive health care in Ohio that is
lawful in Ohio.
(2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to
either of the following:
(a) A tort, contract, or statute-based litigation, if a
similar claim would exist under Ohio law if brought by the
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individual who received the reproductive health care service on
which the original lawsuit was based, or if brought by the
individual's authorized legal representative, for damages
suffered from harm to the individual or another's loss of
consortium with the individual;
(b) A breach of contract litigation, if a similar claim
would exist under Ohio law if brought or sought to be enforced
by a party with a contractual relationship with the person that
is the subject of the action in another state.
(C) Any person aggrieved by a wrongful action in violation
of this section may bring a civil action in a court of competent
jurisdiction against an abusive litigant and may recover, for
each violation, the following:
(1) Actual damages created by the wrongful action,
including money damages in the amount of any judgment awarded in
such wrongful action, and reasonable attorney's fees and costs
incurred to defend against such wrongful action, whether or not
a judgment was awarded;
(2) Reasonable attorneys' fees and costs incurred to bring
an action under this section;
(3) Any other legal or equitable relief as the court may
determine appropriate to remedy the violation.
Sec. 3732.09.
(A) Nothing in sections 3732.01 to 3732.09
of the Revised Code shall be construed to do the following:
(1) Apply to a lawsuit brought in another jurisdiction
where no part of the acts that formed the basis for liability
occurred in Ohio or application of sections 3732.01 to 3732.09
of the Revised Code would result in the extraterritorial
application of those sections in a manner that is not
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incidental;
(2) Limit the rights of an aggrieved person to recover
damages or seek legal protection under any other applicable law
or legal theory.
(B) The provisions of sections 3732.01 to 3732.09 of the
Revised Code shall be interpreted consistently with the United
States Constitution and other applicable law and shall not
unlawfully prohibit constitutionally protected activity.
Sec. 3732.11.
(A) No health care provider or health care
facility shall be required or compelled to provide patient
records to any out-of-state third party, including the federal
government, another state, any political subdivision, or a law
enforcement agency.
(B) For purposes of this section:
(1) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Health care provider" has the same meaning as in
section 2305.2311 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4112.01. (A) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Person" includes one or more individuals,
partnerships, associations, organizations, corporations, legal
representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers,
and other organized groups of persons. "Person" also includes,
but is not limited to, any owner, lessor, assignor, builder,
manager, broker, salesperson, appraiser, agent, employee,
lending institution, and the state and all political
subdivisions, authorities, agencies, boards, and commissions of
the state.
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(2) "Employer" means the state, any political subdivision
of the state, or a person employing four or more persons within
the state, and any agent of the state, political subdivision, or
person.
(3) "Employee" means an individual employed by any
employer but does not include any individual employed in the
domestic service of any person.
(4) "Labor organization" includes any organization that
exists, in whole or in part, for the purpose of collective
bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances,
terms or conditions of employment, or other mutual aid or
protection in relation to employment.
(5) "Employment agency" includes any person regularly
undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure
opportunities to work or to procure, recruit, refer, or place
employees.
(6) "Commission" means the Ohio civil rights commission
created by section 4112.03 of the Revised Code.
(7) "Discriminate" includes segregate or separate.
(8) "Unlawful discriminatory practice" means any act
prohibited by section 4112.02, 4112.021, or 4112.022 of the
Revised Code.
(9) "Place of public accommodation" means any inn,
restaurant, eating house, barbershop, public conveyance by air,
land, or water, theater, store, other place for the sale of
merchandise, or any other place of public accommodation or
amusement of which the accommodations, advantages, facilities,
or privileges are available to the public.
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(10) "Housing accommodations" includes any building or
structure, or portion of a building or structure, that is used
or occupied or is intended, arranged, or designed to be used or
occupied as the home residence, dwelling, dwelling unit, or
sleeping place of one or more individuals, groups, or families
whether or not living independently of each other; and any
vacant land offered for sale or lease. "Housing accommodations"
also includes any housing accommodations held or offered for
sale or rent by a real estate broker, salesperson, or agent, by
any other person pursuant to authorization of the owner, by the
owner, or by the owner's legal representative.
(11) "Restrictive covenant" means any specification
limiting the transfer, rental, lease, or other use of any
housing accommodations because of race, color, religion, sex,
military status, familial status, national origin, disability,
or ancestry, or any limitation based upon affiliation with or
approval by any person, directly or indirectly, employing race,
color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, national
origin, disability, or ancestry as a condition of affiliation or
approval.
(12) "Burial lot" means any lot for the burial of deceased
persons within any public burial ground or cemetery, including,
but not limited to, cemeteries owned and operated by municipal
corporations, townships, or companies or associations
incorporated for cemetery purposes.
(13) "Disability" means a physical or mental impairment
that substantially limits one or more major life activities,
including the functions of caring for one's self, performing
manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing,
learning, and working; a record of a physical or mental
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impairment; or being regarded as having a physical or mental
impairment.
(14) Except as otherwise provided in section 4112.021 of
the Revised Code, "age" means an individual aged forty years or
older.
(15) "Familial status" means either of the following:
(a) One or more individuals who are under eighteen years
of age and who are domiciled with a parent or guardian having
legal custody of the individual or domiciled, with the written
permission of the parent or guardian having legal custody, with
a designee of the parent or guardian;
(b) Any person who is pregnant or in the process of
securing legal custody of any individual who is under eighteen
years of age.
(16)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(16)(b) of this
section, "physical or mental impairment" includes any of the
following:
(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic
disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the
following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special
sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs;
cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic
and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine;
(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, including, but
not limited to, intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome,
emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities;
(iii) Diseases and conditions, including, but not limited
to, orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments,
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cerebral palsy, autism, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple
sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, human
immunodeficiency virus infection, intellectual disability,
emotional illness, drug addiction, and alcoholism.
(b) "Physical or mental impairment" does not include any
of the following:
(i) Homosexuality and bisexuality;
(ii) Transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia,
exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not
resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior
disorders;
(iii) Compulsive gambling, kleptomania, or pyromania;
(iv) Psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from
the current illegal use of a controlled substance or the current
use of alcoholic beverages.
(17) "Dwelling unit" means a single unit of residence for
a family of one or more persons.
(18) "Common use areas" means rooms, spaces, or elements
inside or outside a building that are made available for the use
of residents of the building or their guests, and includes, but
is not limited to, hallways, lounges, lobbies, laundry rooms,
refuse rooms, mail rooms, recreational areas, and passageways
among and between buildings.
(19) "Public use areas" means interior or exterior rooms
or spaces of a privately or publicly owned building that are
made available to the general public.
(20) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.
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Page 91
As Introduced
(21) "Disabled tenant" means a tenant or prospective
tenant who is a person with a disability.
(22) "Military status" means a person's status in "service
in the uniformed services" as defined in section 5923.05 of the
Revised Code.
(23) "Aggrieved person" includes both of the following:
(a) Any person who claims to have been injured by any
unlawful discriminatory practice described in division (H) of
section 4112.02 of the Revised Code;
(b) Any person who believes that the person will be
injured by any unlawful discriminatory practice described in
division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code that is
about to occur.
(24) "Unlawful discriminatory practice relating to
employment" means both of the following:
(a) An unlawful discriminatory practice that is prohibited
by division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) of section 4112.02
of the Revised Code;
(b) An unlawful discriminatory practice that is prohibited
by division (I) or (J) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code
that is related to employment.
(25) "Notice of right to sue" means a notice sent by the
commission to a person who files a charge under section 4112.051
of the Revised Code that states that the person who filed the
charge may bring a civil action related to the charge pursuant
to section 4112.052 or 4112.14 of the Revised Code, in
accordance with section 4112.052 of the Revised Code.
(B) For the purposes of divisions (A) to (F) of section
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Page 92
As Introduced
4112.02 of the Revised Code, the terms "because of sex" and "on
the basis of sex" include, but are not limited to, because of or
on the basis of pregnancy, any illness arising out of and
occurring during the course of a pregnancy, childbirth,
abortion, miscarriage, family planning, or related medical
conditions. Women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, abortion,
miscarriage, family planning, or related medical conditions
shall be treated the same for all employment-related purposes,
including receipt of benefits under fringe benefit programs, as
other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or
inability to work, and nothing in division (B) of section
4111.17 of the Revised Code shall be interpreted to permit
otherwise. This division shall not be construed to require an
employer to pay for health insurance benefits for abortion,
except where the life of the mother would be endangered if the
fetus were carried to term or except where medical complications
have arisen from the abortion, provided that nothing in this
division precludes an employer from providing abortion benefits
or otherwise affects bargaining agreements in regard to
abortion.
Sec. 4112.02. It shall be an unlawful discriminatory
practice:
(A) For any employer, because of the race, color,
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability,
age, or ancestry of any person, to discharge without just cause,
to refuse to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against that any
person with respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or
privileges of employment, or any matter directly or indirectly
related to employment because of any of the following:
(1) The race, color, religion, sex, military status,
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H. B. No. 343
Page 93
As Introduced
national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of the person;
(2) Any reproductive health decision made by the person,
including a decision to use a particular drug, device, or
medical service, including abortion and services related to a
miscarriage or family planning.
(B) For an employment agency or personnel placement
service, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status,
national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the
following:
(1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly,
or refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any
person;
(2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of
applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly
indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions
of sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.
(C) For any labor organization to do any of the following:
(1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race,
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin,
disability, age, or ancestry;
(2) Discriminate against, limit the employment
opportunities of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment
status, wages, hours, or employment conditions of any person as
an employee because of race, color, religion, sex, military
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry.
(D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint labor-
management committee controlling apprentice training programs to
discriminate against any person because of race, color,
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Page 94
As Introduced
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, or
ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any program
established to provide apprentice training.
(E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational
qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or
labor organization, prior to employment or admission to
membership, to do any of the following:
(1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning
the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national
origin, disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for
employment or membership;
(2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion,
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or
ancestry of any applicant for employment or membership;
(3) Use any form of application for employment, or
personnel or membership blank, seeking to elicit information
regarding race, color, religion, sex, military status, national
origin, disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a
contract containing a nondiscrimination clause with the
government of the United States, or any department or agency of
that government, may require an employee or applicant for
employment to furnish documentary proof of United States
citizenship and may retain that proof in the employer's
personnel records and may use photographic or fingerprint
identification for security purposes;
(4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published
any notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership
indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or
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H. B. No. 343
Page 95
As Introduced
discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;
(5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting,
through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership
opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion,
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or
ancestry of that group;
(6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any
employment agency, personnel placement service, training school
or center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring
source known to discriminate against persons because of their
race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin,
disability, age, or ancestry.
(F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause
to be published any advertisement that specifies or in any
manner indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex,
military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry,
or expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color,
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability,
age, or ancestry of any prospective employer.
(G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager
of a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except
for reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race,
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin,
disability, age, or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the
accommodations, advantages, facilities, or privileges of the
place of public accommodation.
(H) Subject to section 4112.024 of the Revised Code, for
any person to do any of the following:
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Page 96
As Introduced
(1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease,
sublease, or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate
for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise
deny or make unavailable housing accommodations because of race,
color, religion, sex, military status, familial status,
ancestry, disability, or national origin;
(2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations
are not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact
they are available, because of race, color, religion, sex,
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or
national origin;
(3) Discriminate against any person in the making or
purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial
assistance for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation,
repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person
in the making or purchasing of loans or the provision of other
financial assistance that is secured by residential real estate,
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of
the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing
accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an
individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money
as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's
principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price
of an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely
casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;
(4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or
conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting,
leasing, or subleasing any housing accommodations or in
furnishing facilities, services, or privileges in connection
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H. B. No. 343
Page 97
As Introduced
with the ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing
accommodations, including the sale of fire, extended coverage,
or homeowners insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex,
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or
national origin or because of the racial composition of the
neighborhood in which the housing accommodations are located;
(5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or
conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by
mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction,
rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of
the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing
accommodations are located;
(6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined
income of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending
mortgage credit to a married couple or either member of a
married couple;
(7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or
advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or
advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment,
rental, lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing
accommodations, or relating to the loan of money, whether or not
secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition,
construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing
accommodations, that indicates any preference, limitation,
specification, or discrimination based upon race, color,
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry,
disability, or national origin, or an intention to make any such
preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;
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H. B. No. 343
Page 98
As Introduced
(8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or
(17) of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information,
make or keep any record, or use any form of application
containing questions or entries concerning race, color,
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry,
disability, or national origin in connection with the sale or
lease of any housing accommodations or the loan of any money,
whether or not secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the
acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or
maintenance of housing accommodations. Any person may make
inquiries, and make and keep records, concerning race, color,
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry,
disability, or national origin for the purpose of monitoring
compliance with this chapter.
(9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing
accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise,
or attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;
(10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a
housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by
representing that a change has occurred or may occur with
respect to the racial, religious, sexual, military status,
familial status, or ethnic composition of the block,
neighborhood, or other area in which the housing accommodations
are located, or induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or
solicit, a housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction
by representing that the presence or anticipated presence of
persons of any race, color, religion, sex, military status,
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin, in
the block, neighborhood, or other area will or may have results
including, but not limited to, the following:
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H. B. No. 343
Page 99
As Introduced
(a) The lowering of property values;
(b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military
status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block,
neighborhood, or other area;
(c) An increase in criminal or antisocial behavior in the
block, neighborhood, or other area;
(d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the
block, neighborhood, or other area.
(11) Deny any person access to or membership or
participation in any multiple-listing service, real estate
brokers' organization, or other service, organization, or
facility relating to the business of selling or renting housing
accommodations, or discriminate against any person in the terms
or conditions of that access, membership, or participation, on
account of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial
status, national origin, disability, or ancestry;
(12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any
person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that
person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or
encouraged any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any
right granted or protected by division (H) of this section;
(13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a
prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing
that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or
might undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial,
sexual, military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;
(14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease,
sublease, or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial
lot from any person because of the race, color, sex, military
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H. B. No. 343
Page 100
As Introduced
status, familial status, age, ancestry, disability, or national
origin of any prospective owner or user of the lot;
(15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise
make unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or
renter because of a disability of any of the following:
(a) The buyer or renter;
(b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made
available;
(c) Any individual associated with the person described in
division (H)(15)(b) of this section.
(16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges
of the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or
in the provision of services or facilities to any person in
connection with the housing accommodations because of a
disability of any of the following:
(a) That person;
(b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made
available;
(c) Any individual associated with the person described in
division (H)(16)(b) of this section.
(17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of
this section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant
for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person
residing in or intending to reside in the housing accommodations
after they are sold, rented, or made available, or any
individual associated with that person has a disability, or make
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Page 101
As Introduced
an inquiry to determine the nature or severity of a disability
of the applicant or such a person or individual. The following
inquiries may be made of all applicants for the sale or rental
of housing accommodations, regardless of whether they have
disabilities:
(a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the
requirements of ownership or tenancy;
(b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is
qualified for housing accommodations available only to persons
with disabilities or persons with a particular type of
disability;
(c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is
qualified for a priority available to persons with disabilities
or persons with a particular type of disability;
(d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently
uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of
the Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal
ordinance;
(e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any
time has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an
element of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell,
cultivation, manufacture, other production, shipment,
transportation, delivery, or other distribution of a controlled
substance.
(18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with
a disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing
accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person
with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to
afford the person with a disability full enjoyment of the
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Page 102
As Introduced
housing accommodations. This division does not preclude a
landlord of housing accommodations that are rented or to be
rented to a tenant with a disability from conditioning
permission for a proposed modification upon the tenant with a
disability doing one or more of the following:
(i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed
modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed
modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any
required building permits will be obtained prior to the
commencement of the proposed modification;
(ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the
interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they
were in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to
reasonable wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it
is reasonable for the landlord to condition permission for the
proposed modification upon the agreement;
(iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that
is in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a
reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at
the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the
housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to
the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and
tear during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the
account reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds
for the restoration work. The interest earned in connection with
an escrow account described in this division shall accrue to the
benefit of the tenant with a disability who makes payments into
the account.
(b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a
proposed modification upon a tenant with a disability's payment
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H. B. No. 343
Page 103
As Introduced
of a security deposit that exceeds the customarily required
security deposit of all tenants of the particular housing
accommodations.
(19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules,
policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a
person with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a
dwelling unit, including associated public and common use areas;
(20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted
under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;
(21) Discriminate against any person in the selling,
brokering, or appraising of real property because of race,
color, religion, sex, military status, familial status,
ancestry, disability, or national origin;
(22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily
dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in
accordance with the following conditions:
(a) The dwellings shall have at least one building
entrance on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do
so because of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the
site.
(b) With respect to dwellings that have a building
entrance on an accessible route, all of the following apply:
(i) The public use areas and common use areas of the
dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons
with a disability.
(ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and
within all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage
by persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.
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Page 104
As Introduced
(iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling
units shall contain an accessible route into and through the
dwelling; all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats,
and other environmental controls within such units shall be in
accessible locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall
contain reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars;
and the kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be
designed and constructed in a manner that enables an individual
in a wheelchair to maneuver about such rooms.
For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered
multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or
more units if such buildings have one or more elevators and
ground floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more
units.
(I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against
any other person because that person has opposed any unlawful
discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that
person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated
in any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.
(J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce
the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful
discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from
complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to
attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by
this section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.
(K) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall
be construed to require a person with a disability to be
employed or trained under circumstances that would significantly
increase the occupational hazards affecting either the person
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Page 105
As Introduced
with a disability, other employees, the general public, or the
facilities in which the work is to be performed, or to require
the employment or training of a person with a disability in a
job that requires the person with a disability routinely to
undertake any task, the performance of which is substantially
and inherently impaired by the person's disability.
(L) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful
discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation
of division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any
employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee
controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor
organization to do any of the following:
(1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications
reasonably related to the particular business or occupation that
may include standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability,
intelligence, education, maturation, and experience;
(2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or
any bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited
to, a retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a
subterfuge to evade the purposes of this section. However, no
such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any
individual, and no such seniority system or employee benefit
plan shall require or permit the involuntary retirement of any
individual, because of the individual's age except as provided
for in the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of
1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat.
3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended.
(3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years
of age who, for the two-year period immediately before
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H. B. No. 343
Page 106
As Introduced
retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high
policymaking position, if the employee is entitled to an
immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a
pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan,
or any combination of those plans, of the employer of the
employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at least forty-four
thousand dollars, in accordance with the conditions of the "Age
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat.
189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in
Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A.
631, as amended;
(4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship
program if the program is registered with the Ohio
apprenticeship council pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06
of the Revised Code and is approved by the federal committee on
apprenticeship of the United States department of labor.
(M) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination
and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised
Code shall be construed to prohibit the following:
(1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which
is necessary for public employees to receive pension or other
retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307.,
3309., or 5505. of the Revised Code;
(2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers
of the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of
the Revised Code;
(3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a
patrol officer in the state highway patrol established by
section 5503.01 of the Revised Code;
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H. B. No. 343
Page 107
As Introduced
(4) The maximum age requirements established for original
appointment to a police department or fire department in
sections 124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;
(5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that
may be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance,
or resolution of a board of township trustees for original
appointment as a police officer or firefighter;
(6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict
with federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or
resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police
officers and firefighters;
(7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any
employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is
serving under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar
arrangement providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of
higher education as defined in the "Education Amendments of
1980," 94 Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).
(N)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (N)(1)(b) of this
section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a
disability does not include any physiological disorder or
condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or
condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance
by an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer,
employment agency, personnel placement service, labor
organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the
basis of that illegal use.
(b) Division (N)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to
an employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the
following:
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H. B. No. 343
Page 108
As Introduced
(i) The employee, applicant, or other person has
successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program
and no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled
substance, or the employee, applicant, or other person otherwise
successfully has been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in
that illegal use.
(ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is
participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no
longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled
substance.
(iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is
erroneously regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any
controlled substance, but the employee, applicant, or other
person is not engaging in that illegal use.
(2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit
an employer, employment agency, personnel placement service,
labor organization, or joint labor-management committee from
doing any of the following:
(a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or
procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the
illegal use of any controlled substance, that are designed to
ensure that an individual described in division (N)(1)(b)(i) or
(ii) of this section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of
any controlled substance;
(b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances
and the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;
(c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of
alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled
substance at the workplace;
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H. B. No. 343
Page 109
As Introduced
(d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with
the requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act
of 1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;
(e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of
any controlled substance or who has alcoholism to the same
qualification standards for employment or job performance, and
the same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency,
personnel placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-
management committee holds other employees, even if any
unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to an
employee's illegal use of a controlled substance or alcoholism;
(f) Exercising other authority recognized in the
"Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42
U.S.C.A. 12101, as amended, including, but not limited to,
requiring employees to comply with any applicable federal
standards.
(3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the
illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a
medical examination.
(4) Division (N) of this section does not encourage,
prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as
encouraging, prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing
for the illegal use of any controlled substance by employees,
applicants, or other persons, or the making of employment
decisions based on the results of that type of testing.
(O) This section does not apply to a religious
corporation, association, educational institution, or society
with respect to the employment of an individual of a particular
religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by that
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H. B. No. 343
Page 110
As Introduced
religious corporation, association, educational institution, or
society of its activities.
The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this
section do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing
authority administering an examination under section 124.23 of
the Revised Code to obtain information about an applicant's
military status for the purpose of determining if the applicant
is eligible for the additional credit that is available under
that section.
Sec. 4729.291. (A) Except when provided under section
4731.97 of the Revised Code, when a licensed health professional
authorized to prescribe drugs personally furnishes drugs to a
patient pursuant to division (B) of section 4729.29 of the
Revised Code, the prescriber shall ensure that the drugs are
labeled and packaged in accordance with state and federal drug
laws and any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to those
laws. Records of purchase and disposition of all drugs
personally furnished to patients shall be maintained by the
prescriber in accordance with state and federal drug statutes
and any rules adopted pursuant to those statutes.
(B) When personally furnishing to a patient RU-486
(mifepristone), a prescriber is subject to sections section
2919.123 and 2919.124 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D) and (E) of this
section, no prescriber shall do either of the following:
(a) In any thirty-day period, personally furnish to or for
patients, taken as a whole, controlled substances in an amount
that exceeds a total of two thousand five hundred dosage units;
(b) In any seventy-two-hour period, personally furnish to
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H. B. No. 343
Page 111
As Introduced
or for a patient an amount of a controlled substance that
exceeds the amount necessary for the patient's use in a seventy-
two-hour period.
(2) The state board of pharmacy may impose a fine of not
more than five thousand dollars on a prescriber who fails to
comply with the limits established under division (C)(1) of this
section. A separate fine may be imposed for each instance of
failing to comply with the limits. In imposing the fine, the
board's actions shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119.
of the Revised Code.
(D) None of the following shall be counted in determining
whether the amounts specified in division (C)(1) of this section
have been exceeded:
(1) Methadone personally furnished to patients for the
purpose of treating drug dependence or addiction, if the
prescriber meets the conditions specified in 21 C.F.R. 1306.07;
(2) Buprenorphine personally furnished to patients for the
purpose of treating drug dependence or addiction as part of an
opioid treatment program licensed under section 5119.37 of the
Revised Code.
(3) Controlled substances personally furnished to research
subjects by a facility conducting clinical research in studies
approved by a hospital-based institutional review board or an
institutional review board accredited by the association for the
accreditation of human research protection programs.
(E) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a
prescriber who is a veterinarian.
Sec. 4731.22. (A) The state medical board, by an
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, may
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H. B. No. 343
Page 112
As Introduced
limit, revoke, or suspend a license or certificate to practice
or certificate to recommend, refuse to grant a license or
certificate, refuse to renew a license or certificate, refuse to
reinstate a license or certificate, or reprimand or place on
probation the holder of a license or certificate if the
individual applying for or holding the license or certificate is
found by the board to have committed fraud during the
administration of the examination for a license or certificate
to practice or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or
deception in applying for, renewing, or securing any license or
certificate to practice or certificate to recommend issued by
the board.
(B) Except as provided in division (P) of this section,
the board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members,
shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend
a license or certificate to practice or certificate to
recommend, refuse to issue a license or certificate, refuse to
renew a license or certificate, refuse to reinstate a license or
certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a
license or certificate for one or more of the following reasons:
(1) Permitting one's name or one's license or certificate
to practice to be used by a person, group, or corporation when
the individual concerned is not actually directing the treatment
given;
(2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to
the selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ
acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other
modalities for treatment of disease;
(3) Except as provided in section 4731.97 of the Revised
Code, selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing,
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H. B. No. 343
Page 113
As Introduced
or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate
therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding
of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for
intervention in lieu of conviction of, a violation of any
federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or
use of any drug;
(4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.
For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a
professional confidence" does not include providing any
information, documents, or reports under sections 307.621 to
307.629 of the Revised Code to a child fatality review board;
does not include providing any information, documents, or
reports under sections 307.631 to 307.6410 of the Revised Code
to a drug overdose fatality review committee, a suicide fatality
review committee, or hybrid drug overdose fatality and suicide
fatality review committee; does not include providing any
information, documents, or reports under sections 307.651 to
307.659 of the Revised Code to a domestic violence fatality
review board; does not include providing any information,
documents, or reports to the director of health pursuant to
guidelines established under section 3701.70 of the Revised
Code; does not include written notice to a mental health
professional under section 4731.62 of the Revised Code; and does
not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a
drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other
than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer
of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the
immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 or
4731.62 of the Revised Code upon a physician who makes a report
in accordance with section 2305.33 or notifies a mental health
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H. B. No. 343
Page 114
As Introduced
professional in accordance with section 4731.62 of the Revised
Code. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the
Revised Code.
(5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in
relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic
medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a
limited branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to
secure any license or certificate to practice issued by the
board.
As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive,
or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a
misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive
because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or
is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of
favorable results, or includes representations or implications
that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent
person to misunderstand or be deceived.
(6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to,
minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the
same or similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a
patient is established;
(7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining
compensation or other advantage as personal gain or for any
other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other
incurable condition, can be permanently cured;
(8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or
anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course
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H. B. No. 343
Page 115
As Introduced
of practice;
(9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of,
or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of
conviction for, a felony;
(10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in
this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was
committed;
(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of,
or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of
conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of
practice;
(12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of,
or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of
conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
(14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by
the board upon a license or certificate to practice;
(16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this
chapter;
(17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the
Revised Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of
patients, or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a
specific referral of a patient to utilize a particular service
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H. B. No. 343
Page 116
As Introduced
or business;
(18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code,
violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American
medical association, the American osteopathic association, the
American podiatric medical association, or any other national
professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The
state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies
of the codes of ethics of the various national professional
organizations. The individual whose license or certificate is
being suspended or revoked shall not be found to have violated
any provision of a code of ethics of an organization not
appropriate to the individual's profession.
For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of
ethics of a national professional organization" does not include
any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a
physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in
this division affects the immunity from civil liability
conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type
of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As
used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician"
have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised
Code.
(19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and
prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or
physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical
deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or
perceptive skills.
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H. B. No. 343
Page 117
As Introduced
In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a
possible violation, shall refer any individual who is authorized
to practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application
pursuant to this chapter to the monitoring organization that
conducts the confidential monitoring program established under
section 4731.25 of the Revised Code. The board also may compel
the individual to submit to a mental examination, physical
examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and a
physical examination. The expense of the examination is the
responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined.
Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent
to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of
the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due
to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default
and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony
or presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual
unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this
division, the board shall require the individual to submit to
care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued,
reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. An individual
affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to
demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
provisions of the individual's license or certificate. For the
purpose of this division, any individual who applies for or
receives a license or certificate to practice under this chapter
accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by so
doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a
mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing
by the board, and to have waived all objections to the
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that
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H. B. No. 343
Page 118
As Introduced
constitute a privileged communication.
(20) Except as provided in division (F)(1)(b) of section
4731.282 of the Revised Code or when civil penalties are imposed
under section 4731.225 of the Revised Code, and subject to
section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to
violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the
violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this
chapter or any rule promulgated by the board.
This division does not apply to a violation or attempted
violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a
conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule
adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report
by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in
this division affects the immunity from civil liability
conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type
of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As
used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician"
have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised
Code.
(21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code
or of any abortion rule adopted by the director of health
pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;
(22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide
health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for
any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation,
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H. B. No. 343
Page 119
As Introduced
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to
practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender;
denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license;
imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or
other reprimand;
(23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code
or the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant
woman with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in
division (B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not
been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as to whether
those conditions have been satisfied, unless an affirmative
defense as specified in division (H)(2) of that section would
apply in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of that
section;
(24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction,
or termination of clinical privileges by the United States
department of defense or department of veterans affairs or the
termination or suspension of a certificate of registration to
prescribe drugs by the drug enforcement administration of the
United States department of justice;
(25) Termination or suspension from participation in the
medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and
human services or other responsible agency;
(26) Impairment of ability to practice according to
acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of substance
use disorder or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or
other substances that may impair ability to practice.
For the purposes of this division, any individual
authorized to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of
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Page 120
As Introduced
practicing in this state subject to supervision by the board. By
filing an application for or holding a license or certificate to
practice under this chapter, an individual shall be deemed to
have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination
when ordered to do so by the board in writing, and to have
waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or
examination reports that constitute privileged communications.
If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized
to practice by this chapter or any applicant for licensure or
certification to practice suffers such impairment, the board
shall refer the individual to the monitoring organization that
conducts the confidential monitoring program established under
section 4731.25 of the Revised Code. The board also may compel
the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of
the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical
examination required under this division shall be undertaken by
a treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct
the examination and who is approved under section 4731.251 of
the Revised Code.
Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination
ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations
against the individual unless the failure is due to
circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and
final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or
presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the
individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall
suspend the individual's license or certificate or deny the
individual's application and shall require the individual, as a
condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed
licensure or certification to practice, to submit to treatment.
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Page 121
As Introduced
Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a
license or certificate suspended under this division, the
impaired practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability
to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing
standards of care under the provisions of the practitioner's
license or certificate. The demonstration shall include, but
shall not be limited to, the following:
(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under
section 4731.251 of the Revised Code that the individual has
successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;
(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an
aftercare contract or consent agreement;
(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's
ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual
has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and
prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by
individuals or providers approved by the board for making the
assessments and shall describe the basis for their
determination.
The board may reinstate a license or certificate suspended
under this division after that demonstration and after the
individual has entered into a written consent agreement.
When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board
shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The
monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with
the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement
or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and,
upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the
board for at least two years of annual written progress reports
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As Introduced
made under penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has
maintained sobriety.
(27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66
or 4731.69 of the Revised Code;
(28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:
(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible
or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the
individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay if the
waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of
patients to receive health care services from that individual;
(b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment
of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient,
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract,
or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would
be required to pay.
(29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051
of the Revised Code;
(30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive
acknowledgment of the notice from, a patient when required by
section 4731.143 of the Revised Code prior to providing
nonemergency professional services, or failure to maintain that
notice in the patient's medical record;
(31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician
assistant to maintain supervision in accordance with the
requirements of Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules
adopted under that chapter;
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As Introduced
(32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a
standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist,
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with
whom the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to
section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the
responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard
care arrangement;
(33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult
agreement entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section
4729.39 of the Revised Code;
(34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by
the board under division (F) of this section, including failure
to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or
failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board
in an investigative interview, an investigative office
conference, at a deposition, or in written interrogatories,
except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court
of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either
quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the
testimony or evidence in issue;
(35) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in
accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the
board's rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;
(36) Assisting suicide, as defined in section 3795.01 of
the Revised Code;
(37) Failure to comply with the requirements of section
2317.561 of the Revised Code;
(38) (37) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in
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As Introduced
accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the
board's rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;
(39) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or
facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to
post the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised
Code;
(40) (38) Failure to comply with the standards and
procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the
Revised Code for the operation of or the provision of care at a
pain management clinic;
(41) (39) Failure to comply with the standards and
procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the
Revised Code for providing supervision, direction, and control
of individuals at a pain management clinic;
(42) (40) Failure to comply with the requirements of
section 4729.79 or 4731.055 of the Revised Code, unless the
state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database
pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;
(43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section
2919.171, 2919.202, or 2919.203 of the Revised Code or failure
to submit to the department of health in accordance with a court
order a complete report as described in section 2919.171 or
2919.202 of the Revised Code;
(44) (41) Practicing at a facility that is subject to
licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous
drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the
person operating the facility has obtained and maintains the
license with the classification;
(45) (42) Owning a facility that is subject to licensure
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As Introduced
as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a
pain management clinic classification unless the facility is
licensed with the classification;
(46) Failure to comply with any of the requirements
regarding making or maintaining medical records or documents
described in division (A) of section 2919.192, division (C) of
section 2919.193, division (B) of section 2919.195, or division
(A) of section 2919.196 of the Revised Code;
(47) (43) Failure to comply with the requirements in
section 3719.061 of the Revised Code before issuing for a minor
a prescription for an opioid analgesic, as defined in section
3719.01 of the Revised Code;
(48) (44) Failure to comply with the requirements of
section 4731.30 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under
section 4731.301 of the Revised Code when recommending treatment
with medical marijuana;
(49) (45) A pattern of continuous or repeated violations
of division (E)(2) or (3) of section 3963.02 of the Revised
Code;
(50) (46) Failure to fulfill the responsibilities of a
collaboration agreement entered into with an athletic trainer as
described in section 4755.621 of the Revised Code;
(51) (47) Failure to take the steps specified in section
4731.911 of the Revised Code following an abortion or attempted
abortion in an ambulatory surgical facility or other location
that is not a hospital when a child is born alive.
(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under
divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to
an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except
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As Introduced
that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a
consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of
a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A
consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not
fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the
findings and order of the board with respect to the matter
addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a
consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the
consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.
A telephone conference call may be utilized for
ratification of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an
individual's license or certificate to practice or certificate
to recommend. The telephone conference call shall be considered
a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the
Revised Code.
If the board takes disciplinary action against an
individual under division (B) of this section for a second or
subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a
violation of section 2919.123 or 2919.124 of the Revised Code,
the disciplinary action shall consist of a suspension of the
individual's license or certificate to practice for a period of
at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a
more serious sanction involving the individual's license or
certificate to practice. Any consent agreement entered into
under this division with an individual that pertains to a second
or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt
of, a violation of that section shall provide for a suspension
of the individual's license or certificate to practice for a
period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the
board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's
license or certificate to practice.
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(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of
this section, the commission of the act may be established by a
finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter
119. of the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act.
The board does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if
the trial court renders a final judgment in the individual's
favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the
merits. The board has jurisdiction under those divisions if the
trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or
procedural grounds.
(E) The sealing or expungement of conviction records by
any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered
under this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take
action under this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a
judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility
for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a
notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order
to seal or expunge the records. The board shall not be required
to seal, expunge, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its
records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.
(F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears
to show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter
or any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board
in a signed writing any information that the person may have
that appears to show a violation of any provision of this
chapter or any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad
faith, any person who reports information of that nature or who
testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable in damages
in a civil action as a result of the report or testimony. Each
complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
shall be assigned a case number and shall be recorded by the
board.
(2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter
or any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the
supervising member elected by the board in accordance with
section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as
provided in section 4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president
may designate another member of the board to supervise the
investigation in place of the supervising member. No member of
the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall
participate in further adjudication of the case.
(3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter
or any rule adopted under this chapter, or in conducting an
inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised
Code, the board may question witnesses, conduct interviews,
administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and
copy any books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue
subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production
of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony,
except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not
be issued without consultation with the attorney general's
office and approval of the secretary of the board.
(a) Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record
information, the secretary shall determine whether there is
probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that
the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and
material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to
records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the
alleged violation.
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
(b) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the
board and after reasonable notice to the person being
subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the
production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil
Procedure.
(c) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a
sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee or agent
designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the
board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the
person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at
the person's usual place of residence, usual place of business,
or address on file with the board. When serving a subpoena to an
applicant for or the holder of a license or certificate issued
under this chapter, service of the subpoena may be made by
certified mail, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall
be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the
person refuses to accept delivery. If the person being served
refuses to accept the subpoena or is not located, service may be
made to an attorney who notifies the board that the attorney is
representing the person.
(d) A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive
the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the
board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and
mileage provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.
(4) All hearings, investigations, and inspections of the
board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of
section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.
(5) A report required to be submitted to the board under
this chapter, a complaint, or information received by the board
pursuant to an investigation or pursuant to an inspection under
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As Introduced
division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code is
confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.
The board shall conduct all investigations or inspections
and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of
patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The
board shall not make public the names or any other identifying
information about patients or complainants unless proper consent
is given or, in the case of a patient, a waiver of the patient
privilege exists under division (B) of section 2317.02 of the
Revised Code, except that consent or a waiver of that nature is
not required if the board possesses reliable and substantial
evidence that no bona fide physician-patient relationship
exists.
The board may share any information it receives pursuant
to an investigation or inspection, including patient records and
patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other
licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are
prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations
of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that
receives the information shall comply with the same requirements
regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical
board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of
the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that
applies when it is dealing with other information in its
possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be
admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of
Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures
are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with
respect to any part of the information that contains names or
other identifying information about patients or complainants
whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to
ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include
sealing its records or deleting specific information from its
records.
(6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report
that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding
three months. The report shall contain the following information
for each case with which the board has completed its activities:
(a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged
violation;
(b) The type of license or certificate to practice, if
any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is
directed;
(c) A description of the allegations contained in the
complaint;
(d) The disposition of the case.
The report shall state how many cases are still pending
and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of
each person involved in each case. The report shall be a public
record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both
of the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an
individual's license or certificate to practice or certificate
to recommend without a prior hearing:
(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an
individual has violated division (B) of this section;
(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.
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As Introduced
Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding
the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a license or
certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call
may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the
vote on the summary suspension.
The board shall serve a written order of suspension in
accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code.
The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during
pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised
Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension
requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for
the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than
seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.
Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The
board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-
five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue
the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution
of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any
subsequent, final adjudicative order.
(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11),
or (13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt,
guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention
in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion
of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the
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As Introduced
order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court
documents. Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and
supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the
individual's license or certificate to practice. The board may
then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code
to determine whether the individual committed the act in
question. Notice of an opportunity for a hearing shall be given
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the
board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this
division, that the individual committed the act or if no hearing
is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions
identified under division (B) of this section.
(I) The license or certificate to practice issued to an
individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in
this state are automatically suspended as of the date of the
individual's second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial
finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 or 2919.124
of the Revised Code. In addition, the license or certificate to
practice or certificate to recommend issued to an individual
under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state
are automatically suspended as of the date the individual pleads
guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is
subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in
lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in
lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any of the
following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially
equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated
murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault,
kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition,
aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary.
Continued practice after suspension shall be considered
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As Introduced
practicing without a license or certificate.
The board shall notify the individual subject to the
suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the
Revised Code. If an individual whose license or certificate is
automatically suspended under this division fails to make a
timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is
applicable:
(1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for
a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of
guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 or 2919.124 of the
Revised Code, the board shall enter an order suspending the
individual's license or certificate to practice for a period of
at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board,
imposing a more serious sanction involving the individual's
license or certificate to practice.
(2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this
section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking
the individual's license or certificate to practice.
(J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and
if the individual subject to the notice does not timely request
a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code,
the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by
an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a
final order that contains the board's findings. In that final
order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under
division (A) or (B) of this section.
(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of
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As Introduced
this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be
accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which
the individual's license or certificate to practice may be
reinstated. The board shall adopt rules governing conditions to
be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a license or
certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section
requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of
the board.
(L) When the board refuses to grant or issue a license or
certificate to practice to an applicant, revokes an individual's
license or certificate to practice, refuses to renew an
individual's license or certificate to practice, or refuses to
reinstate an individual's license or certificate to practice,
the board may specify that its action is permanent. An
individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is
forever thereafter ineligible to hold a license or certificate
to practice and the board shall not accept an application for
reinstatement of the license or certificate or for issuance of a
new license or certificate.
(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised
Code, all of the following apply:
(1) The surrender of a license or certificate issued under
this chapter shall not be effective unless or until accepted by
the board. A telephone conference call may be utilized for
acceptance of the surrender of an individual's license or
certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be
considered a special meeting under division (F) of section
121.22 of the Revised Code. Reinstatement of a license or
certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative
vote of not fewer than six members of the board.
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(2) An application for a license or certificate made under
the provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without
approval of the board.
(3) Failure by an individual to renew a license or
certificate to practice in accordance with this chapter or a
certificate to recommend in accordance with rules adopted under
section 4731.301 of the Revised Code does not remove or limit
the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action under
this section against the individual.
(4) The placement of an individual's license on retired
status, as described in section 4731.283 of the Revised Code,
does not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any
disciplinary action against the individual with regard to the
license as it existed before being placed on retired status.
(5) At the request of the board, a license or certificate
holder shall immediately surrender to the board a license or
certificate that the board has suspended, revoked, or
permanently revoked.
(N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28)
of this section against any person who waives deductibles and
copayments as follows:
(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that
expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or
copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and
consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party
administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made
available to the board upon request.
(2) For professional services rendered to any other person
authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent
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allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.
(O) Under the board's investigative duties described in
this section and subject to division (F) of this section, the
board shall develop and implement a quality intervention program
designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and
communication skills of individuals authorized under this
chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine
and surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing
and implementing the quality intervention program, the board may
do all of the following:
(1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board
an educational and assessment program pursuant to an
investigation the board conducts under this section;
(2) Select providers of educational and assessment
services, including a quality intervention program panel of case
reviewers;
(3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service
providers and approve individual educational programs
recommended by those providers. The board shall monitor the
progress of each individual undertaking a recommended individual
educational program.
(4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an
individual educational program and require further monitoring of
the individual who completed the program or other action that
the board determines to be appropriate;
(5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the
Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention
program.
An individual who participates in an individual
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educational program pursuant to this division shall pay the
financial obligations arising from that educational program.
(P) The board shall not refuse to issue a license to an
applicant because of a conviction, plea of guilty, judicial
finding of guilt, judicial finding of eligibility for
intervention in lieu of conviction, or the commission of an act
that constitutes a criminal offense, unless the refusal is in
accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4731.223. (A) As used in this section, "prosecutor"
has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) Whenever any person holding a valid license or
certificate issued pursuant to this chapter pleads guilty to, is
subject to a judicial finding of guilt of, or is subject to a
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of
conviction for a violation of Chapter 2907., 2925., or 3719. of
the Revised Code or of any substantively comparable ordinance of
a municipal corporation in connection with the person's
practice, or for a second or subsequent time pleads guilty to,
or is subject to a judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of
section 2919.123 or 2919.124 of the Revised Code, the prosecutor
in the case, on forms prescribed and provided by the state
medical board, shall promptly notify the board of the conviction
or guilty plea. Within thirty days of receipt of that
information, the board shall initiate action in accordance with
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether to suspend
or revoke the license or certificate under section 4731.22 of
the Revised Code.
(C) The prosecutor in any case against any person holding
a valid license or certificate issued pursuant to this chapter,
on forms prescribed and provided by the state medical board,
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shall notify the board of any of the following:
(1) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or
court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in
lieu of conviction for a felony, or a case in which the trial
court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural
grounds of a felony charge;
(2) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or
court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in
lieu of conviction for a misdemeanor committed in the course of
practice, or a case in which the trial court issues an order of
dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds of a charge of a
misdemeanor, if the alleged act was committed in the course of
practice;
(3) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or
court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in
lieu of conviction for a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude,
or a case in which the trial court issues an order of dismissal
upon technical or procedural grounds of a charge of a
misdemeanor involving moral turpitude.
The report shall include the name and address of the
license or certificate holder, the nature of the offense for
which the action was taken, and the certified court documents
recording the action.
Sec. 4731.281. (A)(1) A license issued under this chapter
to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and
surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery shall be valid for a
two-year period unless revoked or suspended. A license shall
expire on the date that is two years from the date of issuance
and may be renewed for additional two-year periods. Applications
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for renewal shall be submitted to the state medical board in a
manner prescribed by the board.
Each application shall be accompanied by a biennial
renewal fee of three hundred five dollars.
The board shall deposit the fee in accordance with section
4731.24 of the Revised Code, except that the board shall deposit
twenty dollars of the fee into the state treasury to the credit
of the physician loan repayment fund created by section 3702.78
of the Revised Code.
(2) The board shall provide a renewal notice to every
person holding a license to practice medicine and surgery,
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and
surgery, a renewal notice. The board may provide the notice to
the person through the secretary of any recognized medical,
osteopathic, or podiatric society. The notice shall be provided
to the person at least one month prior to the date on which the
person's license expires.
(3) Failure of any person to receive a notice of renewal
from the board shall not excuse the person from the requirements
contained in this section.
(4) The board's notice shall inform the applicant of the
renewal procedure. The board shall provide the application for
renewal in a form determined by the board.
(5) The applicant shall provide in the application the
applicant's full name; the applicant's residence address,
business address, and electronic mail address; the number of the
applicant's license to practice; and any other information
required by the board.
(6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this
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section, in the case of an applicant who prescribes or
personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines, as
defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, the applicant
shall certify to the board whether the applicant has been
granted access to the drug database established and maintained
by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of
the Revised Code.
(b) The requirement described in division (A)(6)(a) of
this section does not apply if any of the following is the case:
(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state medical
board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the
applicant has been restricted from obtaining further information
from the drug database.
(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the
drug database.
(iii) The applicant does not practice medicine and
surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine
and surgery in this state.
(c) If an applicant certifies to the state medical board
that the applicant has been granted access to the drug database
and the board finds through an audit or other means that the
applicant has not been granted access, the board may take action
under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.
(7) The applicant shall indicate whether the applicant
currently collaborates, as that term is defined in section
4723.01 of the Revised Code, with any clinical nurse
specialists, certified nurse-midwives, or certified nurse
practitioners.
(8) The applicant shall report any criminal offense to
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As Introduced
which the applicant has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant
has been found guilty, or for which the applicant has been found
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction, since last
submitting an application for a license to practice or renewal
of a license.
(9) The applicant shall execute and deliver the
application to the board in a manner prescribed by the board.
(B) The board shall renew a license under this chapter to
practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery,
or podiatric medicine and surgery upon application and
qualification therefor in accordance with this section. A
renewal shall be valid for a two-year period.
(C) Failure of any license holder to renew and comply with
this section shall operate automatically to suspend the holder's
license to practice and if applicable, the holder's certificate
to recommend issued under section 4731.30 of the Revised Code.
Continued practice after the suspension shall be considered as
practicing in violation of section 4731.41, 4731.43, or 4731.60
of the Revised Code.
If the license has been suspended pursuant to this
division for two years or less, it may be reinstated. The board
shall reinstate a license to practice suspended for failure to
renew upon an applicant's submission of a renewal application
and payment of a reinstatement fee of four hundred five dollars.
If the license has been suspended pursuant to this
division for more than two years, it may be restored. Subject to
section 4731.222 of the Revised Code, the board may restore a
license to practice suspended for failure to renew upon an
applicant's submission of a restoration application, payment of
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
a restoration fee of five hundred five dollars, and compliance
with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The board
shall not restore to an applicant a license unless the board, in
its discretion, decides that the results of the criminal records
check do not make the applicant ineligible for a license issued
pursuant to section 4731.14 or 4731.56 of the Revised Code.
Any reinstatement or restoration of a license to practice
under this section shall operate automatically to renew the
holder's certificate to recommend.
(D) The state medical board may obtain information not
protected by statutory or common law privilege from courts and
other sources concerning malpractice claims against any person
holding a license to practice under this chapter or practicing
as provided in section 4731.36 of the Revised Code.
(E) Each renewal notice provided by the board under
division (A)(2) of this section to a person holding a license to
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and
surgery shall inform the applicant of the reporting requirement
established by division (H) of section 3701.79 of the Revised
Code. At the discretion of the board, the information may be
included on the application for renewal or on an accompanying
page.
(F) Each person holding a license to practice medicine and
surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine
and surgery shall give notice to the board of a change in the
license holder's residence address, business address, or
electronic mail address not later than thirty days after the
change occurs.
Sec. 4731.293. (A) The state medical board shall issue,
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
without examination, a clinical research faculty certificate to
practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery,
or podiatric medicine and surgery to any person who applies for
the certificate and provides to the board satisfactory evidence
of both of the following:
(1) That the applicant holds a current, unrestricted
license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine
and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery issued by another
state or country;
(2) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this
state on the academic staff of a medical school accredited by
the liaison committee on medical education, an osteopathic
medical school accredited by the American osteopathic
association, or a college of podiatric medicine and surgery in
good standing with the board.
(B) The holder of a clinical research faculty certificate
may do one of the following, as applicable:
(1) Practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine
and surgery only as is incidental to the certificate holder's
teaching or research duties at the medical school or a teaching
hospital affiliated with the school;
(2) Practice podiatric medicine and surgery only as is
incidental to the certificate holder's teaching or research
duties at the college of podiatric medicine and surgery or a
teaching hospital affiliated with the college.
(C) The board may revoke a certificate on receiving proof
satisfactory to the board that the certificate holder has
engaged in practice in this state outside the scope of the
certificate or that there are grounds for action against the
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.
(D) A clinical research faculty certificate is valid for
three years, except that the certificate ceases to be valid if
the holder's academic staff appointment described in division
(A)(2) of this section is no longer valid or the certificate is
revoked pursuant to division (C) of this section.
(E)(1) The board shall provide a renewal notice to the
certificate holder at least one month before the certificate
expires. Failure of a certificate holder to receive a notice of
renewal from the board shall not excuse the certificate holder
from the requirements contained in this section. The notice
shall inform the certificate holder of the renewal procedure.
The notice also shall inform the certificate holder of the
reporting requirement established by division (H) of section
3701.79 of the Revised Code. At the discretion of the board, the
information may be included on the application for renewal or on
an accompanying page.
(2) A clinical research faculty certificate may be renewed
for an additional three-year period. There is no limit on the
number of times a certificate may be renewed. A person seeking
renewal of a certificate shall apply to the board. The board
shall provide the application for renewal in a form determined
by the board.
(3) An applicant is eligible for renewal if the applicant
does all of the following:
(a) Reports any criminal offense to which the applicant
has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant has been found
guilty, or for which the applicant has been found eligible for
intervention in lieu of conviction, since last filing an
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
application for a clinical research faculty certificate;
(b) Provides evidence satisfactory to the board of both of
the following:
(i) That the applicant continues to maintain a current,
unrestricted license to practice medicine and surgery,
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and
surgery issued by another state or country;
(ii) That the applicant's initial appointment to serve in
this state on the academic staff of a school or college is still
valid or has been renewed.
(4) Regardless of whether the certificate has expired, a
person who was granted a visiting medical faculty certificate
under this section as it existed immediately prior to June 6,
2012, may apply for a clinical research faculty certificate as a
renewal. The board may issue the clinical research faculty
certificate if the applicant meets the requirements of division
(E)(3) of this section. The board may not issue a clinical
research faculty certificate if the visiting medical faculty
certificate was revoked.
(F) A person holding a clinical research faculty
certificate issued under this section shall not be required to
obtain a certificate under Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code.
(G) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary
to implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4743.09. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Durable medical equipment" means a type of equipment,
such as a remote monitoring device utilized by a physician,
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse in
accordance with this section, that can withstand repeated use,
is primarily and customarily used to serve a medical purpose,
and generally is not useful to a person in the absence of
illness or injury and, in addition, includes repair and
replacement parts for the equipment.
(2) "Facility fee" means any fee charged or billed for
telehealth services provided in a facility that is intended to
compensate the facility for its operational expenses and is
separate and distinct from a professional fee.
(3) "Health care professional" means:
(a) An advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the
Revised Code to practice optometry;
(c) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the
Revised Code;
(d) A physician assistant licensed under Chapter 4730. of
the Revised Code;
(e) A physician licensed under Chapter 4731. of the
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic
medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery;
(f) A psychologist, independent school psychologist, or
school psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised
Code;
(g) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the
Revised Code;
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
(h) An audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;
(i) An occupational therapist or physical therapist
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(j) An occupational therapy assistant or physical
therapist assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised
Code;
(k) A professional clinical counselor, independent social
worker, independent marriage and family therapist, art
therapist, or music therapist licensed under Chapter 4757. of
the Revised Code;
(l) An independent chemical dependency counselor licensed
under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code;
(m) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the
Revised Code;
(n) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter
4761. of the Revised Code;
(o) A genetic counselor licensed under Chapter 4778. of
the Revised Code;
(p) A certified Ohio behavior analyst certified under
Chapter 4783. of the Revised Code.
(4) "Health care professional licensing board" means any
of the following:
(a) The board of nursing;
(b) The state vision professionals board;
(c) The state board of pharmacy;
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
(d) The state medical board;
(e) The state board of psychology;
(f) The state chiropractic board;
(g) The state speech and hearing professionals board;
(h) The Ohio occupational therapy, physical therapy, and
athletic trainers board;
(i) The counselor, social worker, and marriage and family
therapist board;
(j) The chemical dependency professionals board.
(5) "Health plan issuer" has the same meaning as in
section 3922.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Telehealth services" means health care services
provided through the use of information and communication
technology by a health care professional, within the
professional's scope of practice, who is located at a site other
than the site where either of the following is located:
(a) The patient receiving the services;
(b) Another health care professional with whom the
provider of the services is consulting regarding the patient.
(B)(1) Each health care professional licensing board shall
permit a health care professional under its jurisdiction to
provide the professional's services as telehealth services in
accordance with this section. Subject to division (B)(2) of this
section, a board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to
implement this section. All rules adopted under this section
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised
Code. Any such rules adopted by a board are not subject to the
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As Introduced
requirements of division (F) of section 121.95 of the Revised
Code.
(2)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this
section, the rules adopted by a health care professional
licensing board under this section shall establish a standard of
care for telehealth services that is equal to the standard of
care for in-person services.
(b) Subject to division (B)(2)(c) of this section, a board
may require an initial in-person visit prior to prescribing a
schedule II controlled substance to a new patient, equivalent to
applicable state and federal requirements.
(c)(i) A board shall not require an initial in-person
visit for a new patient whose medical record indicates that the
patient is receiving hospice or palliative care, who is
receiving medication-assisted treatment or any other medication
for opioid-use disorder, who is a patient with a mental health
condition, or who, as determined by the clinical judgment of a
health care professional, is in an emergency situation.
(ii) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 3796.01 of
the Revised Code, medical marijuana shall not be considered a
schedule II controlled substance.
(C) With respect to the provision of telehealth services,
all of the following apply:
(1) A health care professional may use synchronous or
asynchronous technology to provide telehealth services to a
patient during an initial visit if the appropriate standard of
care for an initial visit is satisfied.
(2) A health care professional may deny a patient
telehealth services and, instead, require the patient to undergo
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H. B. No. 343
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As Introduced
an in-person visit.
(3) When providing telehealth services in accordance with
this section, a health care professional shall comply with all
requirements under state and federal law regarding the
protection of patient information. A health care professional
shall ensure that any username or password information and any
electronic communications between the professional and a patient
are securely transmitted and stored.
(4) A health care professional may use synchronous or
asynchronous technology to provide telehealth services to a
patient during an annual visit if the appropriate standard of
care for an annual visit is satisfied.
(5) In the case of a health care professional who is a
physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered
nurse, both of the following apply:
(a) The professional may provide telehealth services to a
patient located outside of this state if permitted by the laws
of the state in which the patient is located.
(b) The professional may provide telehealth services
through the use of medical devices that enable remote
monitoring, including such activities as monitoring a patient's
blood pressure, heart rate, or glucose level.
(D) When a patient has consented to receiving telehealth
services, the health care professional who provides those
services is not liable in damages under any claim made on the
basis that the services do not meet the same standard of care
that would apply if the services were provided in-person.
(E)(1) A health care professional providing telehealth
services shall not charge a patient or a health plan issuer
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As Introduced
covering telehealth services under section 3902.30 of the
Revised Code any of the following: a facility fee, an
origination fee, or any fee associated with the cost of the
equipment used at the provider site to provide telehealth
services.
A health care professional providing telehealth services
may charge a health plan issuer for durable medical equipment
used at a patient or client site.
(2) A health care professional may negotiate with a health
plan issuer to establish a reimbursement rate for fees
associated with the administrative costs incurred in providing
telehealth services as long as a patient is not responsible for
any portion of the fee.
(3) A health care professional providing telehealth
services shall obtain a patient's consent before billing for the
cost of providing the services, but the requirement to do so
applies only once.
(F) Nothing in this section limits or otherwise affects
any other provision of the Revised Code that requires a health
care professional who is not a physician to practice under the
supervision of, in collaboration with, in consultation with, or
pursuant to the referral of another health care professional.
(G) It is the intent of the general assembly, through the
amendments to this section, to expand access to and investment
in telehealth services in this state in congruence with the
expansion and investment in telehealth services made during the
COVID-19 pandemic.
(H) Reproductive health care and related services may be
provided as telehealth services in accordance with this section.
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As Introduced
Section 2. That existing sections 109.572, 2305.11,
2317.02, 2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792, 3702.30,
4112.01, 4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22, 4731.223, 4731.281,
4731.293, and 4743.09 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.
Section 3. That sections 2307.54, 2317.56, 2317.561,
2919.101, 2919.124, 2919.171, 2919.19, 2919.191, 2919.192,
2919.193, 2919.194, 2919.195, 2919.196, 2919.197, 2919.198,
2919.199, 2919.1910, 2919.1912, 2919.1913, 2919.20, 2919.201,
2919.202, 2919.203, 2919.204, 2919.205, 3701.79, 3701.791,
3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307,
3702.308, 3702.309, 3702.3010, 3702.3011, 3726.01, 3726.02,
3726.03, 3726.04, 3726.041, 3726.042, 3726.05, 3726.09, 3726.10,
3726.11, 3726.12, 3726.13, 3726.14, 3726.15, 3726.16, 3726.95,
3726.99, 3727.60, 4717.271, 5101.57, and 5103.11 of the Revised
Code are hereby repealed.
Section 4. That the version of section 5103.11 of the
Revised Code scheduled to take effect January 1, 2025, is hereby
repealed.
Section 5. Section 4 of this act takes effect January 1,
2025.
Section 6. That the version of section 3702.30 of the
Revised Code scheduled to take effect September 30, 2024, be
amended to read as follows:
Sec. 3702.30. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility in
which surgical services are provided to patients who do not
require hospitalization for inpatient care, the duration of
services for any patient does not extend beyond twenty-four
hours after the patient's admission, and to which any of the
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following apply:
(a) The surgical services are provided in a building that
is separate from another building in which inpatient care is
provided, regardless of whether the separate building is part of
the same organization as the building in which inpatient care is
provided.
(b) The surgical services are provided within a building
in which inpatient care is provided and the entity that operates
the portion of the building where the surgical services are
provided is not the entity that operates the remainder of the
building.
(c) The facility is held out to any person or government
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.
"Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital
emergency department, hospital provider-based department that is
otherwise licensed under Chapter 3722. of the Revised Code, or
an office of a physician, podiatrist, or dentist.
(2) "Health care facility" means any of the following:
(a) An ambulatory surgical facility;
(b) A freestanding dialysis center;
(c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;
(d) A freestanding birthing center;
(e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;
(f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.
(B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12
and 3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall
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establish quality standards for health care facilities. The
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other
quality standards established by any entity recognized by the
director.
In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the
standards shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to
maintain an infection control program. The purposes of the
program are to minimize infections and communicable diseases and
facilitate a functional and sanitary environment consistent with
standards of professional practice. To achieve these purposes,
ambulatory surgical facility staff managing the program shall
create and administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and
manage infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the
program is directed by a qualified professional trained in
infection control; ensure that the program is an integral part
of the ambulatory surgical facility's quality assessment and
performance improvement program; and implement in an expeditious
manner corrective and preventive measures that result in
improvement.
(C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.
(D) The director shall issue a license to each health care
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates
to the director that it meets the quality standards established
by the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and
satisfies the informed consent compliance requirements specified
in division (C) of this section.
(E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) (G) of this
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section and in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health
care facility shall operate without a license issued under this
section.
The general assembly does not intend for the provisions of
this section or section 3702.301 of the Revised Code that
establish health care facility licensing requirements or
exemptions to have an effect on any third-party payments that
may be available for the services provided by either a licensed
health care facility or an entity exempt from licensure.
(2) If the department of health finds that a physician who
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of
informed consent from a patient, the department shall report its
finding to the state medical board, the physician, and the
health care facility.
(3) Division (E)(2) of this section does not create, and
shall not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or
substantive legal right against a health care facility and in
favor of a patient who allegedly sustains harm as a result of
the failure of the patient's physician to obtain informed
consent from the patient prior to performing a procedure on or
otherwise caring for the patient in the health care facility.
(F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section
shall include all of the following:
(1) Provisions governing application for, renewal,
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;
(2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section
3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided
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by a health care facility;
(3) Provisions governing the imposition under section
3702.32 of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of
this section or the rules adopted under this section, including
a scale for determining the amount of the penalties;
(4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use
when conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.
(G) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or
induces abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the
Revised Code.
(H) The following entities are not required to obtain a
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under
this section:
(1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;
(2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital
accreditation or certification program and that provides
diagnostic imaging;
(3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides
diagnostic imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of
a surgical procedure.
Section 7. That the existing version of section 3702.30 of
the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect September 30,
2024, is hereby repealed.
Section 8. Sections 6 and 7 of this act take effect
September 30, 2024.
Section 9. This act shall be known as the Reproductive
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Care Act.
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