Text of UT SB 127 (2021)
Human Services Program Amendments
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As introduced
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S.B. 127
LEGISLATIVE GENERAL COUNSEL
6 Approved for Filing: C. Williams 6
6 01-25-21 11:38 AM 6
S.B. 127
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HUMAN SERVICES PROGRAM AMENDMENTS
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2021 GENERAL SESSION
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STATE OF UTAH
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Chief Sponsor: Michael K. McKell
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House Sponsor: ____________
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LONG TITLE
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General Description:
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This bill modifies provisions related to human services programs.
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Highlighted Provisions:
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This bill:
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<
defines terms;
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<
provides incident reporting requirements for persons licensed by the Office of
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Licensing;
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<
requires the Office of Licensing to review certain policies and procedures
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established by a human services program;
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<
requires a human services program to publicly post the Office of Licensing's contact
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information;
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<
requires the Office of Licensing to inspect each congregate care program multiple
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times a year;
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<
describes when a congregate care program may use a restraint or seclusion;
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<
requires a congregate care program to maintain suicide prevention policies;
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<
prohibits a human services program from engaging in sex and gender based
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discrimination; and
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<
makes technical changes.
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Money Appropriated in this Bill:
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None
*SB0127*
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Other Special Clauses:
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None
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Utah Code Sections Affected:
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AMENDS:
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62A-2-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapters 136, 193 and last
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amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2019, Chapter 193
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62A-2-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 148
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62A-2-118, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 188
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62A-2-120, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapters 176, 225, 250 and last
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amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 225
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ENACTS:
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62A-2-123, Utah Code Annotated 1953
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62A-2-124, Utah Code Annotated 1953
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Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
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Section 1. Section 62A-2-101 is amended to read:
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62A-2-101. Definitions.
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As used in this chapter:
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(1) "Adult day care" means nonresidential care and supervision:
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(a) for three or more adults for at least four but less than 24 hours a day; and
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(b) that meets the needs of functionally impaired adults through a comprehensive
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program that provides a variety of health, social, recreational, and related support services in a
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protective setting.
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(2) "Applicant" means a person who applies for an initial license or a license renewal
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under this chapter.
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(3) (a) "Associated with the licensee" means that an individual is:
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(i) affiliated with a licensee as an owner, director, member of the governing body,
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employee, agent, provider of care, department contractor, or volunteer; or
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(ii) applying to become affiliated with a licensee in a capacity described in Subsection
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(3)(a)(i).
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(b) "Associated with the licensee" does not include:
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(i) service on the following bodies, unless that service includes direct access to a child
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or a vulnerable adult:
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(A) a local mental health authority described in Section 17-43-301;
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(B) a local substance abuse authority described in Section 17-43-201; or
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(C) a board of an organization operating under a contract to provide mental health or
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substance abuse programs, or services for the local mental health authority or substance abuse
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authority; or
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(ii) a guest or visitor whose access to a child or a vulnerable adult is directly supervised
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at all times.
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(4) (a) "Boarding school" means a private school that:
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(i) uses a regionally accredited education program;
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(ii) provides a residence to the school's students:
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(A) for the purpose of enabling the school's students to attend classes at the school; and
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(B) as an ancillary service to educating the students at the school;
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(iii) has the primary purpose of providing the school's students with an education, as
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defined in Subsection (4)(b)(i); and
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(iv) (A) does not provide the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)]
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(36)(a); or
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(B) provides the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) on a
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limited basis, as described in Subsection (4)(b)(ii).
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(b) (i) For purposes of Subsection (4)(a)(iii), "education" means a course of study for
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one or more of grades kindergarten through 12th grade.
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(ii) For purposes of Subsection (4)(a)(iv)(B), a private school provides the treatment or
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services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) on a limited basis if:
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(A) the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) are provided
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only as an incidental service to a student; and
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(B) the school does not:
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(I) specifically solicit a student for the purpose of providing the treatment or services
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described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a); or
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(II) have a primary purpose of providing the treatment or services described in
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Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a).
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(c) "Boarding school" does not include a therapeutic school.
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(5) "Child" means [a person] an individual under 18 years [of age] old.
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(6) "Child placing" means receiving, accepting, or providing custody or care for any
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child, temporarily or permanently, for the purpose of:
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(a) finding a person to adopt the child;
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(b) placing the child in a home for adoption; or
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(c) foster home placement.
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(7) "Child-placing agency" means a person that engages in child placing.
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(8) "Client" means an individual who receives or has received services from a licensee.
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(9) (a) "Congregate care program" means any of the following that provide services to
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a child:
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(i) an outdoor youth program;
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(ii) a residential support program;
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(iii) a residential treatment program; or
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(iv) a therapeutic school.
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(b) "Congregate care program" does not include a facility exclusively operated by the
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Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
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[(9)] (10) "Day treatment" means specialized treatment that is provided to:
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(a) a client less than 24 hours a day; and
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(b) four or more persons who:
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(i) are unrelated to the owner or provider; and
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(ii) have emotional, psychological, developmental, physical, or behavioral
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dysfunctions, impairments, or chemical dependencies.
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[(10)] (11) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.
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[(11)] (12) "Department contractor" means an individual who:
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(a) provides services under a contract with the department; and
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(b) due to the contract with the department, has or will likely have direct access to a
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child or vulnerable adult.
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[(12)] (13) "Direct access" means that an individual has, or likely will have:
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(a) contact with or access to a child or vulnerable adult that provides the individual
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with an opportunity for personal communication or touch; or
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(b) an opportunity to view medical, financial, or other confidential personal identifying
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information of the child, the child's parents or legal guardians, or the vulnerable adult.
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[(13)] (14) "Directly supervised" means that an individual is being supervised under
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the uninterrupted visual and auditory surveillance of another individual who has a current
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background screening approval issued by the office.
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[(14)] (15) "Director" means the director of the Office of Licensing.
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[(15)] (16) "Domestic violence" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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77-36-1.
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[(16)] (17) "Domestic violence treatment program" means a nonresidential program
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designed to provide psychological treatment and educational services to perpetrators and
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victims of domestic violence.
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[(17)] (18) "Elder adult" means a person 65 years [of age] old or older.
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[(18)] (19) "Executive director" means the executive director of the department.
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[(19)] (20) "Foster home" means a residence that is licensed or certified by the Office
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of Licensing for the full-time substitute care of a child.
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[(20)] (21) "Health benefit plan" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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31A-1-301.
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[(21)] (22) "Health care provider" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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78B-3-403.
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[(22)] (23) "Health insurer" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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31A-22-615.5.
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[(23)] (24) (a) "Human services program" means [a]:
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(i) a foster home;
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(ii) a therapeutic school;
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(iii) a youth program;
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(iv) an outdoor youth program;
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(v) a residential treatment program;
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(vi) a residential support program;
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[(iv)] (vii) a resource family home;
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[(v)] (viii) a recovery residence; or
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[(vi)] (ix) a facility or program that provides:
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[(A) secure treatment;]
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[(B) inpatient treatment;]
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[(C) residential treatment;]
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[(D) residential support;]
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[(E)] (A) adult day care;
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[(F)] (B) day treatment;
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[(G)] (C) outpatient treatment;
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[(H)] (D) domestic violence treatment;
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[(I)] (E) child-placing services;
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[(J)] (F) social detoxification; or
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[(K)] (G) any other human services that are required by contract with the department to
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be licensed with the department.
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(b) "Human services program" does not include:
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(i) a boarding school; or
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(ii) a residential, vocational and life skills program, as defined in Section 13-53-102.
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[(24)] (25) "Indian child" means the same as that term is defined in 25 U.S.C. Sec.
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1903.
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[(25)] (26) "Indian country" means the same as that term is defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec.
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1151.
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[(26)] (27) "Indian tribe" means the same as that term is defined in 25 U.S.C. Sec.
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1903.
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(28) "Intermediate secure treatment" means 24-hour specialized residential treatment or
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care for an individual who:
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(a) cannot live independently or in a less restrictive environment; and
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(b) requires, without the individual's consent or control, the use of locked doors to care
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for the individual.
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[(27)] (29) "Licensee" means an individual or a human services program licensed by
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the office.
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[(28)] (30) "Local government" means a city, town, metro township, or county.
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[(29)] (31) "Minor" has the same meaning as "child."
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[(30)] (32) "Office" means the Office of Licensing within the Department of Human
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Services.
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(33) "Outdoor youth program" means a program that provides:
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(a) services to a child that has:
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(i) a chemical dependency; or
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(ii) a dysfunction or impairment that is emotional, psychological, developmental, or
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behavioral;
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(b) a 24-hour outdoor group living environment; and
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(c) regular therapy, including group, individual, or supportive family therapy.
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[(31)] (34) "Outpatient treatment" means individual, family, or group therapy or
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counseling designed to improve and enhance social or psychological functioning for those
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whose physical and emotional status allows them to continue functioning in their usual living
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environment.
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[(32)] (35) "Practice group" or "group practice" means two or more health care
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providers legally organized as a partnership, professional corporation, or similar association,
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for which:
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(a) substantially all of the services of the health care providers who are members of the
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group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of the group and amounts
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received are treated as receipts of the group; and
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(b) the overhead expenses of and the income from the practice are distributed in
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accordance with methods previously determined by members of the group.
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[(33)] (36) (a) "Recovery residence" means a home, residence, or facility that meets at
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least two of the following requirements:
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(i) provides a supervised living environment for individuals recovering from a
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substance use disorder;
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(ii) provides a living environment in which more than half of the individuals in the
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residence are recovering from a substance use disorder;
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(iii) provides or arranges for residents to receive services related to their recovery from
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a substance use disorder, either on or off site;
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(iv) is held out as a living environment in which individuals recovering from substance
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abuse disorders live together to encourage continued sobriety; or
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(v) (A) receives public funding; or
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(B) is run as a business venture, either for-profit or not-for-profit.
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(b) "Recovery residence" does not mean:
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(i) a residential treatment program;
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(ii) residential support; or
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(iii) a home, residence, or facility, in which:
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(A) residents, by their majority vote, establish, implement, and enforce policies
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governing the living environment, including the manner in which applications for residence are
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approved and the manner in which residents are expelled;
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(B) residents equitably share rent and housing-related expenses; and
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(C) a landlord, owner, or operator does not receive compensation, other than fair
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market rental income, for establishing, implementing, or enforcing policies governing the
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living environment.
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[(34)] (37) "Regular business hours" means:
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(a) the hours during which services of any kind are provided to a client; or
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(b) the hours during which a client is present at the facility of a licensee.
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[(35)] (38) (a) "Residential support program" means [arranging for or providing] a
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program that arranges for or provides the necessities of life as a protective service to
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individuals or families who have a disability or who are experiencing a dislocation or
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emergency that prevents them from providing these services for themselves or their families.
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(b) "Residential support program" includes [providing] a program that provides a
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supervised living environment for [persons] individuals with dysfunctions or impairments that
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are:
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(i) emotional;
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(ii) psychological;
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(iii) developmental; or
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(iv) behavioral.
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(c) Treatment is not a necessary component of a residential support program.
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(d) "Residential support program" does not include:
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(i) a recovery residence; or
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(ii) a program that provides residential services that are performed:
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(A) exclusively under contract with the department and provided to individuals through
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the Division of Services for People with Disabilities; or
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(B) in a facility that serves fewer than four individuals.
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[(36)] (39) (a) "Residential treatment" means a 24-hour group living environment for
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four or more individuals unrelated to the owner or provider that offers room or board and
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specialized treatment, behavior modification, rehabilitation, discipline, emotional growth, or
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habilitation services for persons with emotional, psychological, developmental, or behavioral
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dysfunctions, impairments, or chemical dependencies.
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(b) "Residential treatment" does not include a:
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(i) boarding school;
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(ii) foster home; or
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(iii) recovery residence.
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[(37)] (40) "Residential treatment program" means a [human services program] a
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program or facility that provides:
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(a) residential treatment; or
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(b) intermediate secure treatment.
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[(38) (a) "Secure treatment" means 24-hour specialized residential treatment or care for
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persons whose current functioning is such that they cannot live independently or in a less
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restrictive environment.]
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[(b) "Secure treatment" differs from residential treatment to the extent that it requires
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intensive supervision, locked doors, and other security measures that are imposed on residents
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with neither their consent nor control.]
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(41) "Seclusion" means the involuntary confinement of an individual in a room or an
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area:
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(a) away from the individual's peers; and
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(b) in a manner that physically prevents the individual from leaving the room or area.
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[(39)] (42) "Social detoxification" means short-term residential services for persons
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who are experiencing or have recently experienced drug or alcohol intoxication, that are
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provided outside of a health care facility licensed under Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care
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Facility Licensing and Inspection Act, and that include:
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(a) room and board for persons who are unrelated to the owner or manager of the
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facility;
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(b) specialized rehabilitation to acquire sobriety; and
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(c) aftercare services.
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[(40)] (43) "Substance abuse disorder" or "substance use disorder" mean the same as
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"substance use disorder" is defined in Section 62A-15-1202.
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[(41)] (44) "Substance abuse treatment program" or "substance use disorder treatment
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program" means a program:
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(a) designed to provide:
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(i) specialized drug or alcohol treatment;
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(ii) rehabilitation; or
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(iii) habilitation services; and
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(b) that provides the treatment or services described in Subsection [(41)] (44)(a) to
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persons with:
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(i) a diagnosed substance use disorder; or
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(ii) chemical dependency disorder.
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[(42)] (45) "Therapeutic school" means a residential group living facility:
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(a) for four or more individuals that are not related to:
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(i) the owner of the facility; or
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(ii) the primary service provider of the facility;
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(b) that serves students who have a history of failing to function:
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(i) at home;
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(ii) in a public school; or
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(iii) in a nonresidential private school; and
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(c) that offers:
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(i) room and board; and
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(ii) an academic education integrated with:
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(A) specialized structure and supervision; or
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(B) services or treatment related to:
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(I) a disability;
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(II) emotional development;
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(III) behavioral development;
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(IV) familial development; or
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(V) social development.
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[(43)] (46) "Unrelated persons" means persons other than parents, legal guardians,
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grandparents, brothers, sisters, uncles, or aunts.
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[(44)] (47) "Vulnerable adult" means an elder adult or an adult who has a temporary or
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permanent mental or physical impairment that substantially affects the person's ability to:
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(a) provide personal protection;
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(b) provide necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or mental or other health care;
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(c) obtain services necessary for health, safety, or welfare;
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(d) carry out the activities of daily living;
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(e) manage the adult's own resources; or
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(f) comprehend the nature and consequences of remaining in a situation of abuse,
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neglect, or exploitation.
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[(45)] (48) (a) "Youth program" means a [nonresidential] program designed to provide
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behavioral, substance abuse, or mental health services to minors that:
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(i) serves adjudicated or nonadjudicated youth;
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(ii) charges a fee for its services;
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(iii) may [or may not] provide host homes or other arrangements for overnight
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accommodation of the youth;
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(iv) may [or may not] provide all or part of its services in the outdoors;
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(v) may [or may not] limit or censor access to parents or guardians; and
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(vi) prohibits or restricts a minor's ability to leave the program at any time of the
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minor's own free will.
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(b) "Youth program" does not include recreational programs such as Boy Scouts, Girl
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Scouts, 4-H, and other such organizations.
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Section 2. Section 62A-2-106 is amended to read:
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62A-2-106. Office responsibilities.
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(1) Subject to the requirements of federal and state law, the office shall:
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(a) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
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Rulemaking Act, to establish:
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(i) except as provided in Subsection (1)(a)(ii), basic health and safety standards for
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licensees, that shall be limited to:
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(A) fire safety;
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(B) food safety;
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(C) sanitation;
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(D) infectious disease control;
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(E) safety of the:
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(I) physical facility and grounds; and
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(II) area and community surrounding the physical facility;
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(F) transportation safety;
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(G) emergency preparedness and response;
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(H) the administration of medical standards and procedures, consistent with the related
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provisions of this title;
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(I) staff and client safety and protection;
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(J) the administration and maintenance of client and service records;
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(K) staff qualifications and training, including standards for permitting experience to
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be substituted for education, unless prohibited by law;
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(L) staff to client ratios;
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(M) access to firearms; and
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(N) the prevention of abuse, neglect, exploitation, harm, mistreatment, or fraud;
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(ii) basic health and safety standards for therapeutic schools, that shall be limited to:
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(A) fire safety, except that the standards are limited to those required by law or rule
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under Title 53, Chapter 7, Part 2, Fire Prevention and Fireworks Act;
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(B) food safety;
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(C) sanitation;
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(D) infectious disease control, except that the standards are limited to:
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(I) those required by law or rule under Title 26, Utah Health Code, or Title 26A, Local
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Health Authorities; and
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(II) requiring a separate room for clients who are sick;
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(E) safety of the physical facility and grounds, except that the standards are limited to
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those required by law or rule under Title 53, Chapter 7, Part 2, Fire Prevention and Fireworks
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Act;
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(F) transportation safety;
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(G) emergency preparedness and response;
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(H) access to appropriate medical care, including:
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(I) subject to the requirements of law, designation of a person who is authorized to
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dispense medication; and
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(II) storing, tracking, and securing medication;
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(I) staff and client safety and protection that permits the school to provide for the direct
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supervision of clients at all times;
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(J) the administration and maintenance of client and service records;
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(K) staff qualifications and training, including standards for permitting experience to
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be substituted for education, unless prohibited by law;
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(L) staff to client ratios;
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(M) access to firearms; and
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(N) the prevention of abuse, neglect, exploitation, harm, mistreatment, or fraud;
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(iii) procedures and standards for permitting a licensee to:
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(A) provide in the same facility and under the same conditions as children, residential
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treatment services to a person 18 years old or older who:
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(I) begins to reside at the licensee's residential treatment facility before the person's
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18th birthday;
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(II) has resided at the licensee's residential treatment facility continuously since the
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time described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(A)(I);
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(III) has not completed the course of treatment for which the person began residing at
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the licensee's residential treatment facility; and
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(IV) voluntarily consents to complete the course of treatment described in Subsection
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(1)(a)(iii)(A)(III); or
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(B) (I) provide residential treatment services to a child who is:
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(Aa) 12 years old or older; and
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(Bb) under the custody of the Department of Human Services, or one of its divisions;
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and
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(II) provide, in the same facility as a child described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(B)(I),
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residential treatment services to a person who is:
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(Aa) at least 18 years old, but younger than 21 years old; and
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(Bb) under the custody of the Department of Human Services, or one of its divisions;
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(iv) minimum administration and financial requirements for licensees;
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(v) guidelines for variances from rules established under this Subsection (1);
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(vi) ethical standards, as described in Subsection 78B-6-106(3), and minimum
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responsibilities of a child-placing agency that provides adoption services and that is licensed
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under this chapter;
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(vii) what constitutes an "outpatient treatment program" for purposes of this chapter;
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(viii) a procedure requiring a licensee to provide an insurer the licensee's records
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related to any services or supplies billed to the insurer, and a procedure allowing the licensee
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and the insurer to contact the Insurance Department to resolve any disputes;
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(ix) a protocol for the office to investigate and process complaints about licensees;
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[and]
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(x) a procedure for [licensees to report incidents;] a licensee to:
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(A) report a serious incident within one business day after the day on which the
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incident occurs; and
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(B) provide a monthly report of all incidents during which the licensee used a restraint;
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(xi) guidelines for the policies and procedures described in Sections 62A-2-123 and
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62A-2-124;
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(xii) a procedure for the office to review and approve the policies and procedures
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described in Sections 62A-2-123 and 62A-2-124; and
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(xiii) a requirement that each human services program publicly post information that
421
informs an individual how to submit a complaint about a human services program to the office.
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(b) enforce rules relating to the office;
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(c) issue licenses in accordance with this chapter;
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(d) if the United States Department of State executes an agreement with the office that
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designates the office to act as an accrediting entity in accordance with the Intercountry
426
Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L. No. 106-279, accredit one or more agencies and persons to
427
provide intercountry adoption services pursuant to:
428
(i) the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L. No. 106-279; and
429
(ii) the implementing regulations for the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L.
430
No. 106-279;
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(e) make rules to implement the provisions of Subsection (1)(d);
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(f) conduct surveys and inspections of licensees and facilities in accordance with
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Section 62A-2-118;
434
(g) collect licensure fees;
435
(h) notify licensees of the name of a person within the department to contact when
436
filing a complaint;
437
(i) investigate complaints regarding any licensee or human services program;
438
(j) have access to all records, correspondence, and financial data required to be
439
maintained by a licensee;
440
(k) have authority to interview any client, family member of a client, employee, or
441
officer of a licensee;
442
(l) have authority to deny, condition, revoke, suspend, or extend any license issued by
443
the department under this chapter by following the procedures and requirements of Title 63G,
444
Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act;
445
(m) electronically post notices of agency action issued to a human services program,
446
with the exception of a foster home, on the office's website, in accordance with Title 63G,
447
Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management Act; and
448
(n) upon receiving a local government's request under Section 62A-2-108.4, notify the
449
local government of new human services program license applications, except for foster
450
homes, for human services programs located within the local government's jurisdiction.
451
(2) In establishing rules under Subsection (1)(a)(ii)(G), the office shall require a
452
licensee to establish and comply with an emergency response plan that requires clients and staff
453
to:
454
(a) immediately report to law enforcement any significant criminal activity, as defined
455
by rule, committed:
456
(i) on the premises where the licensee operates its human services program;
457
(ii) by or against its clients; or
458
(iii) by or against a staff member while the staff member is on duty;
459
(b) immediately report to emergency medical services any medical emergency, as
460
defined by rule:
461
(i) on the premises where the licensee operates its human services program;
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462
(ii) involving its clients; or
463
(iii) involving a staff member while the staff member is on duty; and
464
(c) immediately report other emergencies that occur on the premises where the licensee
465
operates its human services program to the appropriate emergency services agency.
466
Section 3. Section 62A-2-118 is amended to read:
467
62A-2-118. Administrative inspections.
468
(1) (a) [The] Subject to Subsection (1)(b), the office may, for the purpose of
469
ascertaining compliance with this chapter, enter and inspect on a routine basis the facility of a
470
licensee.
471
(b) The office shall enter and inspect a congregate care program at least once each
472
calendar quarter.
473
(2) Before conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the office shall, after
474
identifying the person in charge:
475
(a) give proper identification;
476
(b) request to see the applicable license;
477
(c) describe the nature and purpose of the inspection; and
478
(d) if necessary, explain the authority of the office to conduct the inspection and the
479
penalty for refusing to permit the inspection as provided in Section 62A-2-116.
480
(3) In conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the office may, after meeting the
481
requirements of Subsection (2):
482
(a) inspect the physical facilities;
483
(b) inspect and copy records and documents;
484
(c) interview officers, employees, clients, family members of clients, and others; and
485
(d) observe the licensee in operation.
486
(4) An inspection conducted under Subsection (1) shall be during regular business
487
hours and may be announced or unannounced.
488
(5) The licensee shall make copies of inspection reports available to the public upon
489
request.
490
(6) The provisions of this section apply to on-site inspections and do not restrict the
491
office from contacting family members, neighbors, or other individuals, or from seeking
492
information from other sources to determine compliance with this chapter.
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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493
Section 4. Section 62A-2-120 is amended to read:
494
62A-2-120. Background check -- Direct access to children or vulnerable adults.
495
(1) As used in this section:
496
(a) (i) "Applicant" means:
497
(A) the same as that term is defined in Section 62A-2-101;
498
(B) an individual who is associated with a licensee and has or will likely have direct
499
access to a child or a vulnerable adult;
500
(C) an individual who provides respite care to a foster parent or an adoptive parent on
501
more than one occasion;
502
(D) a department contractor;
503
(E) a guardian submitting an application on behalf of an individual, other than the child
504
or vulnerable adult who is receiving the service, if the individual is 12 years [of age] old or
505
older and resides in a home, that is licensed or certified by the office, with the child or
506
vulnerable adult who is receiving services; or
507
(F) a guardian submitting an application on behalf of an individual, other than the child
508
or vulnerable adult who is receiving the service, if the individual is 12 years [of age] old or
509
older and is a person described in Subsection (1)(a)(i)(A), (B), (C), or (D).
510
(ii) "Applicant" does not mean an individual, including an adult, who is in the custody
511
of the Division of Child and Family Services or the Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
512
(b) "Application" means a background screening application to the office.
513
(c) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Identification within the Department of
514
Public Safety, created in Section 53-10-201.
515
(d) "Incidental care" means occasional care, not in excess of five hours per week and
516
never overnight, for a foster child.
517
(e) "Personal identifying information" means:
518
(i) current name, former names, nicknames, and aliases;
519
(ii) date of birth;
520
(iii) physical address and email address;
521
(iv) telephone number;
522
(v) driver license or other government-issued identification;
523
(vi) social security number;
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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524
(vii) only for applicants who are 18 years [of age] old or older, fingerprints, in a form
525
specified by the office; and
526
(viii) other information specified by the office by rule made in accordance with Title
527
63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
528
(2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (13), an applicant or a representative shall
529
submit the following to the office:
530
(i) personal identifying information;
531
(ii) a fee established by the office under Section 63J-1-504; and
532
(iii) a disclosure form, specified by the office, for consent for:
533
(A) an initial background check upon submission of the information described under
534
this Subsection (2)(a);
535
(B) ongoing monitoring of fingerprints and registries until no longer associated with a
536
licensee for 90 days;
537
(C) a background check when the office determines that reasonable cause exists; and
538
(D) retention of personal identifying information, including fingerprints, for
539
monitoring and notification as described in Subsections (3)(d) and (4).
540
(b) In addition to the requirements described in Subsection (2)(a), if an applicant
541
resided outside of the United States and its territories during the five years immediately
542
preceding the day on which the information described in Subsection (2)(a) is submitted to the
543
office, the office may require the applicant to submit documentation establishing whether the
544
applicant was convicted of a crime during the time that the applicant resided outside of the
545
United States or its territories.
546
(3) The office:
547
(a) shall perform the following duties as part of a background check of an applicant:
548
(i) check state and regional criminal background databases for the applicant's criminal
549
history by:
550
(A) submitting personal identifying information to the bureau for a search; or
551
(B) using the applicant's personal identifying information to search state and regional
552
criminal background databases as authorized under Section 53-10-108;
553
(ii) submit the applicant's personal identifying information and fingerprints to the
554
bureau for a criminal history search of applicable national criminal background databases;
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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555
(iii) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family Services'
556
Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006;
557
(iv) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Aging and Adult Services'
558
vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section 62A-3-311.1;
559
(v) search the juvenile court records for substantiated findings of severe child abuse or
560
neglect described in Section 78A-6-323; and
561
(vi) search the juvenile court arrest, adjudication, and disposition records, as provided
562
under Section 78A-6-209;
563
(b) shall conduct a background check of an applicant for an initial background check
564
upon submission of the information described under Subsection (2)(a);
565
(c) may conduct all or portions of a background check of an applicant, as provided by
566
rule, made by the office in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
567
Rulemaking Act:
568
(i) for an annual renewal; or
569
(ii) when the office determines that reasonable cause exists;
570
(d) may submit an applicant's personal identifying information, including fingerprints,
571
to the bureau for checking, retaining, and monitoring of state and national criminal background
572
databases and for notifying the office of new criminal activity associated with the applicant;
573
(e) shall track the status of an approved applicant under this section to ensure that an
574
approved applicant is not required to duplicate the submission of the applicant's fingerprints if
575
the applicant applies for:
576
(i) more than one license;
577
(ii) direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult in more than one human services
578
program; or
579
(iii) direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult under a contract with the department;
580
(f) shall track the status of each license and each individual with direct access to a child
581
or a vulnerable adult and notify the bureau within 90 days after the day on which the license
582
expires or the individual's direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult ceases;
583
(g) shall adopt measures to strictly limit access to personal identifying information
584
solely to the individuals responsible for processing and entering the applications for
585
background checks and to protect the security of the personal identifying information the office
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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586
reviews under this Subsection (3);
587
(h) as necessary to comply with the federal requirement to check a state's child abuse
588
and neglect registry regarding any individual working in a congregate care [setting that serves
589
children] program, shall:
590
(i) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family Services'
591
Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006; and
592
(ii) require the child abuse and neglect registry be checked in each state where an
593
applicant resided at any time during the five years immediately preceding the day on which the
594
applicant submits the information described in Subsection (2)(a) to the office; and
595
(i) shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
596
Rulemaking Act, to implement the provisions of this Subsection (3) relating to background
597
checks.
598
(4) (a) With the personal identifying information the office submits to the bureau under
599
Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against state and regional criminal background databases
600
for the applicant's criminal history.
601
(b) With the personal identifying information and fingerprints the office submits to the
602
bureau under Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against national criminal background
603
databases for the applicant's criminal history.
604
(c) Upon direction from the office, and with the personal identifying information and
605
fingerprints the office submits to the bureau under Subsection (3)(d), the bureau shall:
606
(i) maintain a separate file of the fingerprints for search by future submissions to the
607
local and regional criminal records databases, including latent prints; and
608
(ii) monitor state and regional criminal background databases and identify criminal
609
activity associated with the applicant.
610
(d) The bureau is authorized to submit the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of
611
Investigation Next Generation Identification System, to be retained in the Federal Bureau of
612
Investigation Next Generation Identification System for the purpose of:
613
(i) being searched by future submissions to the national criminal records databases,
614
including the Federal Bureau of Investigation Next Generation Identification System and latent
615
prints; and
616
(ii) monitoring national criminal background databases and identifying criminal
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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617
activity associated with the applicant.
618
(e) The Bureau shall notify and release to the office all information of criminal activity
619
associated with the applicant.
620
(f) Upon notice from the office that a license has expired or an individual's direct
621
access to a child or a vulnerable adult has ceased for 90 days, the bureau shall:
622
(i) discard and destroy any retained fingerprints; and
623
(ii) notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation when the license has expired or an
624
individual's direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult has ceased, so that the Federal Bureau
625
of Investigation will discard and destroy the retained fingerprints from the Federal Bureau of
626
Investigation Next Generation Identification System.
627
(5) (a) After conducting the background check described in Subsections (3) and (4), the
628
office shall deny an application to an applicant who, within three years before the day on which
629
the applicant submits information to the office under Subsection (2) for a background check,
630
has been convicted of any of the following, regardless of whether the offense is a felony, a
631
misdemeanor, or an infraction:
632
(i) an offense identified as domestic violence, lewdness, voyeurism, battery, cruelty to
633
animals, or bestiality;
634
(ii) a violation of any pornography law, including sexual exploitation of a minor;
635
(iii) prostitution;
636
(iv) an offense included in:
637
(A) Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person;
638
(B) Section 76-5b-201, Sexual Exploitation of a Minor; or
639
(C) Title 76, Chapter 7, Offenses Against the Family;
640
(v) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
641
(vi) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
642
(vii) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302;
643
(viii) identity fraud crime, as described in Section 76-6-1102; or
644
(ix) a felony or misdemeanor offense committed outside of the state that, if committed
645
in the state, would constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsections (5)(a)(i)
646
through (viii).
647
(b) If the office denies an application to an applicant based on a conviction described in
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
- 22 -
648
Subsection (5)(a), the applicant is not entitled to a comprehensive review described in
649
Subsection (6).
650
(c) If the applicant will be working in a program serving only adults whose only
651
impairment is a mental health diagnosis, including that of a serious mental health disorder,
652
with or without co-occurring substance use disorder, the denial provisions of Subsection (5)(a)
653
do not apply, and the office shall conduct a comprehensive review as described in Subsection
654
(6).
655
(6) (a) The office shall conduct a comprehensive review of an applicant's background
656
check if the applicant:
657
(i) has an open court case or a conviction for any felony offense, not described in
658
Subsection (5)(a), with a date of conviction that is no more than 10 years before the date on
659
which the applicant submits the application;
660
(ii) has an open court case or a conviction for a misdemeanor offense, not described in
661
Subsection (5)(a), and designated by the office, by rule, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter
662
3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, if the conviction is within three years before the day
663
on which the applicant submits information to the office under Subsection (2) for a background
664
check;
665
(iii) has a conviction for any offense described in Subsection (5)(a) that occurred more
666
than three years before the day on which the applicant submitted information under Subsection
667
(2)(a);
668
(iv) is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for any offense
669
described in Subsection (5)(a);
670
(v) has a listing in the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family
671
Services' Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006;
672
(vi) has a listing in the Department of Human Services, Division of Aging and Adult
673
Services' vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section
674
62A-3-311.1;
675
(vii) has a record in the juvenile court of a substantiated finding of severe child abuse
676
or neglect described in Section 78A-6-323;
677
(viii) has a record of an adjudication in juvenile court for an act that, if committed by
678
an adult, would be a felony or misdemeanor, if the applicant is:
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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679
(A) under 28 years [of age] old; or
680
(B) 28 years [of age] old or older and has been convicted of, has pleaded no contest to,
681
or is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for a felony or a
682
misdemeanor offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
683
(ix) has a pending charge for an offense described in Subsection (5)(a); or
684
(x) is an applicant described in Subsection (5)(c).
685
(b) The comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a) shall include an
686
examination of:
687
(i) the date of the offense or incident;
688
(ii) the nature and seriousness of the offense or incident;
689
(iii) the circumstances under which the offense or incident occurred;
690
(iv) the age of the perpetrator when the offense or incident occurred;
691
(v) whether the offense or incident was an isolated or repeated incident;
692
(vi) whether the offense or incident directly relates to abuse of a child or vulnerable
693
adult, including:
694
(A) actual or threatened, nonaccidental physical, mental, or financial harm;
695
(B) sexual abuse;
696
(C) sexual exploitation; or
697
(D) negligent treatment;
698
(vii) any evidence provided by the applicant of rehabilitation, counseling, psychiatric
699
treatment received, or additional academic or vocational schooling completed;
700
(viii) the applicant's risk of harm to clientele in the program or in the capacity for
701
which the applicant is applying; and
702
(ix) any other pertinent information presented to or publicly available to the committee
703
members.
704
(c) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a), the
705
office shall deny an application to an applicant if the office finds that approval would likely
706
create a risk of harm to a child or a vulnerable adult.
707
(d) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a), the
708
office may not deny an application to an applicant solely because the applicant was convicted
709
of an offense that occurred 10 or more years before the day on which the applicant submitted
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
- 24 -
710
the information required under Subsection (2)(a) if:
711
(i) the applicant has not committed another misdemeanor or felony offense after the
712
day on which the conviction occurred; and
713
(ii) the applicant has never been convicted of an offense described in Subsection
714
(14)(c).
715
(e) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
716
office may make rules, consistent with this chapter, to establish procedures for the
717
comprehensive review described in this Subsection (6).
718
(7) Subject to Subsection (10), the office shall approve an application to an applicant
719
who is not denied under Subsection (5), (6), or [(13)] (14).
720
(8) (a) The office may conditionally approve an application of an applicant, for a
721
maximum of 60 days after the day on which the office sends written notice to the applicant
722
under Subsection (12), without requiring that the applicant be directly supervised, if the office:
723
(i) is awaiting the results of the criminal history search of national criminal background
724
databases; and
725
(ii) would otherwise approve an application of the applicant under Subsection (7).
726
(b) The office may conditionally approve an application of an applicant, for a
727
maximum of one year after the day on which the office sends written notice to the applicant
728
under Subsection (12), without requiring that the applicant be directly supervised if the office:
729
(i) is awaiting the results of an out-of-state registry for providers other than foster and
730
adoptive parents; and
731
(ii) would otherwise approve an application of the applicant under Subsection (7).
732
(c) Upon receiving the results of the criminal history search of a national criminal
733
background database, the office shall approve or deny the application of the applicant in
734
accordance with Subsections (5) through (7).
735
(9) A licensee or department contractor may not permit an individual to have direct
736
access to a child or a vulnerable adult unless, subject to Subsection (10):
737
(a) the individual is associated with the licensee or department contractor and:
738
(i) the individual's application is approved by the office under this section;
739
(ii) the individual's application is conditionally approved by the office under
740
Subsection (8); or
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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741
(iii) (A) the individual has submitted the background check information described in
742
Subsection (2) to the office;
743
(B) the office has not determined whether to approve the applicant's application; and
744
(C) the individual is directly supervised by an individual who has a current background
745
screening approval issued by the office under this section and is associated with the licensee or
746
department contractor;
747
(b) (i) the individual is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
748
(ii) the individual has a current background screening approval issued by the office
749
under this section;
750
(iii) one of the following circumstances, that the office has not yet reviewed under
751
Subsection (6), applies to the individual:
752
(A) the individual was charged with an offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
753
(B) the individual is listed in the Licensing Information System, described in Section
754
62A-4a-1006;
755
(C) the individual is listed in the vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation
756
database, described in Section 62A-3-311.1;
757
(D) the individual has a record in the juvenile court of a substantiated finding of severe
758
child abuse or neglect, described in Section 78A-6-323; or
759
(E) the individual has a record of an adjudication in juvenile court for an act that, if
760
committed by an adult, would be a felony or a misdemeanor as described in Subsection (5)(a)
761
or (6); and
762
(iv) the individual is directly supervised by an individual who:
763
(A) has a current background screening approval issued by the office under this
764
section; and
765
(B) is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
766
(c) the individual:
767
(i) is not associated with the licensee or department contractor; and
768
(ii) is directly supervised by an individual who:
769
(A) has a current background screening approval issued by the office under this
770
section; and
771
(B) is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
- 26 -
772
(d) the individual is the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian of the
773
vulnerable adult;
774
(e) the individual is approved by the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian of
775
the vulnerable adult, to have direct access to the child or the vulnerable adult;
776
(f) the individual is only permitted to have direct access to a vulnerable adult who
777
voluntarily invites the individual to visit; or
778
(g) the individual only provides incidental care for a foster child on behalf of a foster
779
parent who has used reasonable and prudent judgment to select the individual to provide the
780
incidental care for the foster child.
781
(10) An individual may not have direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult if the
782
individual is prohibited by court order from having that access.
783
(11) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an individual for whom the
784
office denies an application may not have direct access to a child or vulnerable adult unless the
785
office approves a subsequent application by the individual.
786
(12) (a) Within 30 days after the day on which the office receives the background
787
check information for an applicant, the office shall give notice of the clearance status to:
788
(i) the applicant, and the licensee or department contractor, of the office's decision
789
regarding the background check and findings; and
790
(ii) the applicant of any convictions and potentially disqualifying charges and
791
adjudications found in the search.
792
(b) With the notice described in Subsection (12)(a), the office shall also give the
793
applicant the details of any comprehensive review conducted under Subsection (6).
794
(c) If the notice under Subsection (12)(a) states that the applicant's application is
795
denied, the notice shall further advise the applicant that the applicant may, under Subsection
796
62A-2-111(2), request a hearing in the department's Office of Administrative Hearings, to
797
challenge the office's decision.
798
(d) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
799
office shall make rules, consistent with this chapter:
800
(i) defining procedures for the challenge of the office's background check decision
801
described in Subsection (12)(c); and
802
(ii) expediting the process for renewal of a license under the requirements of this
01-25-21 11:38 AM
S.B. 127
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803
section and other applicable sections.
804
(13) An individual or a department contractor who provides services in an adults only
805
substance use disorder program, as defined by rule, is exempt from this section. This
806
exemption does not extend to a program director or a member, as defined by Section
807
62A-2-108, of the program.
808
(14) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (14)(b), in addition to the other requirements
809
of this section, if the background check of an applicant is being conducted for the purpose of
810
giving clearance status to an applicant seeking a position in a congregate care [facility]
811
program, an applicant for a one-time adoption, an applicant seeking to provide a prospective
812
foster home, or an applicant seeking to provide a prospective adoptive home, the office shall:
813
(i) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each applicant resided
814
in the five years immediately preceding the day on which the applicant applied to be a foster
815
parent or adoptive parent, to determine whether the prospective foster parent or prospective
816
adoptive parent is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or supported finding of child
817
abuse or neglect; and
818
(ii) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each adult living in
819
the home of the applicant described in Subsection (14)(a)(i) resided in the five years
820
immediately preceding the day on which the applicant applied to be a foster parent or adoptive
821
parent, to determine whether the adult is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or
822
supported finding of child abuse or neglect.
823
(b) The requirements described in Subsection (14)(a) do not apply to the extent that:
824
(i) federal law or rule permits otherwise; or
825
(ii) the requirements would prohibit the Division of Child and Family Services or a
826
court from placing a child with:
827
(A) a noncustodial parent under Section 62A-4a-209, 78A-6-307, or 78A-6-307.5; or
828
(B) a relative, other than a noncustodial parent, under Section 62A-4a-209, 78A-6-307,
829
or 78A-6-307.5, pending completion of the background check described in Subsection (5).
830
(c) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (9), the office shall deny a clearance to an
831
applicant seeking a position in a congregate care [facility] program, an applicant for a one-time
832
adoption, an applicant to become a prospective foster parent, or an applicant to become a
833
prospective adoptive parent if the applicant has been convicted of:
S.B. 127
01-25-21 11:38 AM
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834
(i) a felony involving conduct that constitutes any of the following:
835
(A) child abuse, as described in Section 76-5-109;
836
(B) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, as described in Section
837
76-5-109.1;
838
(C) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, as described in Section 76-5-110;
839
(D) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, as described in Section 76-5-112.5;
840
(E) aggravated murder, as described in Section 76-5-202;
841
(F) murder, as described in Section 76-5-203;
842
(G) manslaughter, as described in Section 76-5-205;
843
(H) child abuse homicide, as described in Section 76-5-208;
844
(I) homicide by assault, as described in Section 76-5-209;
845
(J) kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301;
846
(K) child kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301.1;
847
(L) aggravated kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-302;
848
(M) human trafficking of a child, as described in Section 76-5-308.5;
849
(N) an offense described in Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
850
(O) sexual exploitation of a minor, as described in Section 76-5b-201;
851
(P) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
852
(Q) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
853
(R) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302; or
854
(S) domestic violence, as described in Section 77-36-1; or
855
(ii) an offense committed outside the state that, if committed in the state, would
856
constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsection (14)(c)(i).
857
(d) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (9), the office shall deny a license or
858
license renewal to a prospective foster parent or a prospective adoptive parent if, within the five
859
years immediately preceding the day on which the individual's application or license would
860
otherwise be approved, the applicant was convicted of a felony involving conduct that
861
constitutes a violation of any of the following:
862
(i) aggravated assault, as described in Section 76-5-103;
863
(ii) aggravated assault by a prisoner, as described in Section 76-5-103.5;
864
(iii) mayhem, as described in Section 76-5-105;
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865
(iv) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
866
(v) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
867
(vi) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances
868
Act;
869
(vii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance
870
Precursor Act; or
871
(viii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37d, Clandestine Drug Lab Act.
872
(e) In addition to the circumstances described in Subsection (6)(a), the office shall
873
conduct the comprehensive review of an applicant's background check pursuant to this section
874
if the registry check described in Subsection (14)(a) indicates that the individual is listed in a
875
child abuse and neglect registry of another state as having a substantiated or supported finding
876
of a severe type of child abuse or neglect as defined in Section 62A-4a-1002.
877
Section 5. Section 62A-2-123 is enacted to read:
878
62A-2-123. Congregate care program regulation.
879
(1) A congregate care program may not use a cruel, severe, unusual, or unnecessary
880
practice on a child, including:
881
(a) a strip search;
882
(b) a body cavity search;
883
(c) inducing pain to obtain compliance;
884
(d) hyperextending joints;
885
(e) peer restraints;
886
(f) discipline or punishment that is intended to frighten or humiliate;
887
(g) requiring or forcing the child to take an uncomfortable position, including squatting
888
or bending;
889
(h) for the purpose of punishing or humiliating, requiring or forcing the child to repeat
890
physical movements or physical exercises such as running laps or performing push-ups;
891
(i) spanking, hitting, shaking, or otherwise engaging in aggressive physical contact;
892
(j) denying an essential program service;
893
(k) depriving the child of a meal, water, rest, or opportunity for toileting;
894
(l) denying shelter, clothing, or bedding;
895
(m) withholding personal interaction, emotional response, or stimulation;
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896
(n) prohibiting the child from entering the residence;
897
(o) abuse as defined in Section 78A-6-105; and
898
(p) neglect as defined in Section 78A-6-105.
899
(2) Before a congregate care program may use a restraint or seclusion, the congregate
900
care program shall:
901
(a) develop and implement written policies and procedures that:
902
(i) describe the circumstances under which a staff member may use a restraint or
903
seclusion;
904
(ii) describe which staff members are authorized to use a restraint or seclusion;
905
(iii) describe procedures for monitoring a child that is restrained or in seclusion;
906
(iv) describe time limitations on the use of a restraint or seclusion;
907
(v) require immediate and continuous review of the decision to use a restraint or
908
seclusion;
909
(vi) require documenting the use of a restraint or seclusion;
910
(vii) describe record keeping requirements for records related to the use of a restraint or
911
seclusion;
912
(viii) require debriefing a child that was restrained or in seclusion, each witness to the
913
event, and each staff member involved;
914
(ix) include a procedure for complying with Subsection (5); and
915
(x) provide an administrative review process and required follow up actions after a
916
child is restrained or put in seclusion; and
917
(b) consult with the office to ensure that the congregate care program's written policies
918
and procedures align with industry standards and applicable law.
919
(3) A congregate care program:
920
(a) may use a passive physical restraint only if the passive physical restraint is
921
supported by a nationally or regionally recognized curriculum focused on non-violent
922
interventions and de-escalation techniques;
923
(b) may not use a chemical or mechanical restraint unless the office has authorized the
924
congregate care program to use a chemical or mechanical restraint;
925
(c) shall ensure that a staff member that uses a restraint on a child is:
926
(i) properly trained to use the restraint; and
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927
(ii) familiar with the child and if the child has a treatment plan, the child's treatment
928
plan; and
929
(d) shall train each staff member on how to intervene if another staff member fails to
930
follow correct procedures when using a restraint.
931
(4) (a) A congregate care program:
932
(i) may use seclusion if:
933
(A) the purpose for the seclusion is to ensure the immediate safety of the child or
934
others; and
935
(B) no less restrictive intervention is likely to ensure the safety of the child or others;
936
and
937
(ii) may not use seclusion:
938
(A) for coercion, retaliation, or humiliation; or
939
(B) due to inadequate staffing or for the staff's convenience.
940
(b) While a child is in seclusion, a staff member who is familiar to the child shall
941
actively supervise the child for the duration of the seclusion.
942
(5) Within one business day after the day on which a staff member uses a restraint or
943
seclusion, the congregate care program shall report the use of the restraint or seclusion to the
944
office and the child's parent or guardian.
945
(6) Subject to the office's review and approval, a congregate care program shall
946
develop:
947
(a) suicide prevention policies and procedures that describe:
948
(i) how the congregate care program will respond in the event a child exhibits
949
self-injurious, self-harm, or suicidal behavior;
950
(ii) warning signs of suicide;
951
(iii) emergency protocol and contacts;
952
(iv) training requirements for staff, including suicide prevention training and suicide
953
risk assessment tool training;
954
(v) procedures for implementing additional supervision precautions and for removing
955
any additional supervision precautions;
956
(vi) suicide risk assessment procedures on the day of intake;
957
(vii) documentation requirements for a child's suicide ideation and self-harm;
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958
(viii) special observation precautions for a child exhibiting warning signs of suicide;
959
(ix) communication procedures to ensure all staff are aware of a child who exhibits
960
warning signs of suicide;
961
(x) a process for tracking suicide behavioral patterns; and
962
(xi) a post-intervention plan with identified resources; and
963
(b) based on state law and industry best practices, policies and procedures for
964
managing a child's behavior during the child's participation in the congregate care program.
965
(7) A congregate care program:
966
(a) shall facilitate communication between a child and the child's parents, guardian,
967
foster parents, and siblings, as applicable;
968
(b) shall ensure that the communication described in Subsection (7)(a) complies with
969
the child's treatment plan, if any; and
970
(c) may not use family contact as an incentive for proper behavior or withhold family
971
contact as a punishment.
972
Section 6. Section 62A-2-124 is enacted to read:
973
62A-2-124. Human services program non-discrimination.
974
A human services program:
975
(1) shall identify an individual by the individual's preferred name and pronouns;
976
(2) may not implement a dress code that prohibits or requires clothing on the basis of
977
biological sex;
978
(3) shall perform an individualized assessment when classifying and placing an
979
individual in programs and living environments; and
980
(4) subject to the office's review and approval, shall create policies and procedures that
981
include:
982
(a) a description of what constitutes sex and gender based abuse, discrimination, and
983
harassment;
984
(b) procedures for preventing and reporting abuse, discrimination, and harassment; and
985
(c) procedures for teaching effective and professional communication with individuals
986
of all sexual orientations and genders.
As enrolled or final
67,891 characters
Enrolled Copy
S.B. 127
1
HUMAN SERVICES PROGRAM AMENDMENTS
2
2021 GENERAL SESSION
3
STATE OF UTAH
4
Chief Sponsor: Michael K. McKell
5
House Sponsor: Brady Brammer
6
7
LONG TITLE
8
General Description:
9
This bill modifies provisions related to human services programs.
10
Highlighted Provisions:
11
This bill:
12
<
defines terms;
13
<
provides incident reporting requirements for persons licensed by the Office of
14
Licensing;
15
<
requires the Office of Licensing to review certain policies and procedures
16
established by a human services program;
17
<
requires a human services program to publicly post the Office of Licensing's contact
18
information;
19
<
requires the Office of Licensing to inspect each congregate care program multiple
20
times a year;
21
<
describes when a congregate care program may use a restraint or seclusion;
22
<
requires a congregate care program to maintain suicide prevention policies;
23
<
prohibits a human services program from engaging in sex and gender based
24
discrimination; and
25
<
makes technical changes.
26
Money Appropriated in this Bill:
27
None
28
Other Special Clauses:
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29
None
30
Utah Code Sections Affected:
31
AMENDS:
32
62A-2-101, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2019, Chapters 136, 193 and last
33
amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2019, Chapter 193
34
62A-2-106, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2017, Chapter 148
35
62A-2-118, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2005, Chapter 188
36
62A-2-120, as last amended by Laws of Utah 2020, Chapters 176, 225, 250 and last
37
amended by Coordination Clause, Laws of Utah 2020, Chapter 225
38
ENACTS:
39
62A-2-123, Utah Code Annotated 1953
40
62A-2-124, Utah Code Annotated 1953
41
42
Be it enacted by the Legislature of the state of Utah:
43
Section 1. Section 62A-2-101 is amended to read:
44
62A-2-101. Definitions.
45
As used in this chapter:
46
(1) "Adult day care" means nonresidential care and supervision:
47
(a) for three or more adults for at least four but less than 24 hours a day; and
48
(b) that meets the needs of functionally impaired adults through a comprehensive
49
program that provides a variety of health, social, recreational, and related support services in a
50
protective setting.
51
(2) "Applicant" means a person who applies for an initial license or a license renewal
52
under this chapter.
53
(3) (a) "Associated with the licensee" means that an individual is:
54
(i) affiliated with a licensee as an owner, director, member of the governing body,
55
employee, agent, provider of care, department contractor, or volunteer; or
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56
(ii) applying to become affiliated with a licensee in a capacity described in Subsection
57
(3)(a)(i).
58
(b) "Associated with the licensee" does not include:
59
(i) service on the following bodies, unless that service includes direct access to a child
60
or a vulnerable adult:
61
(A) a local mental health authority described in Section 17-43-301;
62
(B) a local substance abuse authority described in Section 17-43-201; or
63
(C) a board of an organization operating under a contract to provide mental health or
64
substance abuse programs, or services for the local mental health authority or substance abuse
65
authority; or
66
(ii) a guest or visitor whose access to a child or a vulnerable adult is directly supervised
67
at all times.
68
(4) (a) "Boarding school" means a private school that:
69
(i) uses a regionally accredited education program;
70
(ii) provides a residence to the school's students:
71
(A) for the purpose of enabling the school's students to attend classes at the school; and
72
(B) as an ancillary service to educating the students at the school;
73
(iii) has the primary purpose of providing the school's students with an education, as
74
defined in Subsection (4)(b)(i); and
75
(iv) (A) does not provide the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)]
76
(36)(a); or
77
(B) provides the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) on a
78
limited basis, as described in Subsection (4)(b)(ii).
79
(b) (i) For purposes of Subsection (4)(a)(iii), "education" means a course of study for
80
one or more of grades kindergarten through 12th grade.
81
(ii) For purposes of Subsection (4)(a)(iv)(B), a private school provides the treatment or
82
services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) on a limited basis if:
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83
(A) the treatment or services described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a) are provided
84
only as an incidental service to a student; and
85
(B) the school does not:
86
(I) specifically solicit a student for the purpose of providing the treatment or services
87
described in Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a); or
88
(II) have a primary purpose of providing the treatment or services described in
89
Subsection [(33)(a)] (36)(a).
90
(c) "Boarding school" does not include a therapeutic school.
91
(5) "Child" means [a person] an individual under 18 years [of age] old.
92
(6) "Child placing" means receiving, accepting, or providing custody or care for any
93
child, temporarily or permanently, for the purpose of:
94
(a) finding a person to adopt the child;
95
(b) placing the child in a home for adoption; or
96
(c) foster home placement.
97
(7) "Child-placing agency" means a person that engages in child placing.
98
(8) "Client" means an individual who receives or has received services from a licensee.
99
(9) "Congregate care program" means any of the following that provide services to a
100
child:
101
(a) an outdoor youth program;
102
(b) a residential support program;
103
(c) a residential treatment program; or
104
(d) a therapeutic school.
105
[(9)] (10) "Day treatment" means specialized treatment that is provided to:
106
(a) a client less than 24 hours a day; and
107
(b) four or more persons who:
108
(i) are unrelated to the owner or provider; and
109
(ii) have emotional, psychological, developmental, physical, or behavioral
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S.B. 127
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110
dysfunctions, impairments, or chemical dependencies.
111
[(10)] (11) "Department" means the Department of Human Services.
112
[(11)] (12) "Department contractor" means an individual who:
113
(a) provides services under a contract with the department; and
114
(b) due to the contract with the department, has or will likely have direct access to a
115
child or vulnerable adult.
116
[(12)] (13) "Direct access" means that an individual has, or likely will have:
117
(a) contact with or access to a child or vulnerable adult that provides the individual
118
with an opportunity for personal communication or touch; or
119
(b) an opportunity to view medical, financial, or other confidential personal identifying
120
information of the child, the child's parents or legal guardians, or the vulnerable adult.
121
[(13)] (14) "Directly supervised" means that an individual is being supervised under
122
the uninterrupted visual and auditory surveillance of another individual who has a current
123
background screening approval issued by the office.
124
[(14)] (15) "Director" means the director of the Office of Licensing.
125
[(15)] (16) "Domestic violence" means the same as that term is defined in Section
126
77-36-1.
127
[(16)] (17) "Domestic violence treatment program" means a nonresidential program
128
designed to provide psychological treatment and educational services to perpetrators and
129
victims of domestic violence.
130
[(17)] (18) "Elder adult" means a person 65 years [of age] old or older.
131
[(18)] (19) "Executive director" means the executive director of the department.
132
[(19)] (20) "Foster home" means a residence that is licensed or certified by the Office
133
of Licensing for the full-time substitute care of a child.
134
[(20)] (21) "Health benefit plan" means the same as that term is defined in Section
135
31A-1-301.
136
[(21)] (22) "Health care provider" means the same as that term is defined in Section
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137
78B-3-403.
138
[(22)] (23) "Health insurer" means the same as that term is defined in Section
139
31A-22-615.5.
140
[(23)] (24) (a) "Human services program" means [a]:
141
(i) a foster home;
142
(ii) a therapeutic school;
143
(iii) a youth program;
144
(iv) an outdoor youth program;
145
(v) a residential treatment program;
146
(vi) a residential support program;
147
[(iv)] (vii) a resource family home;
148
[(v)] (viii) a recovery residence; or
149
[(vi)] (ix) a facility or program that provides:
150
[(A) secure treatment;]
151
[(B) inpatient treatment;]
152
[(C) residential treatment;]
153
[(D) residential support;]
154
[(E)] (A) adult day care;
155
[(F)] (B) day treatment;
156
[(G)] (C) outpatient treatment;
157
[(H)] (D) domestic violence treatment;
158
[(I)] (E) child-placing services;
159
[(J)] (F) social detoxification; or
160
[(K)] (G) any other human services that are required by contract with the department to
161
be licensed with the department.
162
(b) "Human services program" does not include:
163
(i) a boarding school; or
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164
(ii) a residential, vocational and life skills program, as defined in Section 13-53-102.
165
[(24)] (25) "Indian child" means the same as that term is defined in 25 U.S.C. Sec.
166
1903.
167
[(25)] (26) "Indian country" means the same as that term is defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec.
168
1151.
169
[(26)] (27) "Indian tribe" means the same as that term is defined in 25 U.S.C. Sec.
170
1903.
171
(28) "Intermediate secure treatment" means 24-hour specialized residential treatment or
172
care for an individual who:
173
(a) cannot live independently or in a less restrictive environment; and
174
(b) requires, without the individual's consent or control, the use of locked doors to care
175
for the individual.
176
[(27)] (29) "Licensee" means an individual or a human services program licensed by
177
the office.
178
[(28)] (30) "Local government" means a city, town, metro township, or county.
179
[(29)] (31) "Minor" has the same meaning as "child."
180
[(30)] (32) "Office" means the Office of Licensing within the Department of Human
181
Services.
182
(33) "Outdoor youth program" means a program that provides:
183
(a) services to a child that has:
184
(i) a chemical dependency; or
185
(ii) a dysfunction or impairment that is emotional, psychological, developmental, or
186
behavioral;
187
(b) a 24-hour outdoor group living environment; and
188
(c) (i) regular therapy, including group, individual, or supportive family therapy; or
189
(ii) informal therapy or similar services, including wilderness therapy, adventure
190
therapy, or outdoor behavioral healthcare.
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191
[(31)] (34) "Outpatient treatment" means individual, family, or group therapy or
192
counseling designed to improve and enhance social or psychological functioning for those
193
whose physical and emotional status allows them to continue functioning in their usual living
194
environment.
195
[(32)] (35) "Practice group" or "group practice" means two or more health care
196
providers legally organized as a partnership, professional corporation, or similar association,
197
for which:
198
(a) substantially all of the services of the health care providers who are members of the
199
group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of the group and amounts
200
received are treated as receipts of the group; and
201
(b) the overhead expenses of and the income from the practice are distributed in
202
accordance with methods previously determined by members of the group.
203
[(33)] (36) (a) "Recovery residence" means a home, residence, or facility that meets at
204
least two of the following requirements:
205
(i) provides a supervised living environment for individuals recovering from a
206
substance use disorder;
207
(ii) provides a living environment in which more than half of the individuals in the
208
residence are recovering from a substance use disorder;
209
(iii) provides or arranges for residents to receive services related to their recovery from
210
a substance use disorder, either on or off site;
211
(iv) is held out as a living environment in which individuals recovering from substance
212
abuse disorders live together to encourage continued sobriety; or
213
(v) (A) receives public funding; or
214
(B) is run as a business venture, either for-profit or not-for-profit.
215
(b) "Recovery residence" does not mean:
216
(i) a residential treatment program;
217
(ii) residential support; or
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218
(iii) a home, residence, or facility, in which:
219
(A) residents, by their majority vote, establish, implement, and enforce policies
220
governing the living environment, including the manner in which applications for residence are
221
approved and the manner in which residents are expelled;
222
(B) residents equitably share rent and housing-related expenses; and
223
(C) a landlord, owner, or operator does not receive compensation, other than fair
224
market rental income, for establishing, implementing, or enforcing policies governing the
225
living environment.
226
[(34)] (37) "Regular business hours" means:
227
(a) the hours during which services of any kind are provided to a client; or
228
(b) the hours during which a client is present at the facility of a licensee.
229
[(35)] (38) (a) "Residential support program" means [arranging for or providing] a
230
program that arranges for or provides the necessities of life as a protective service to
231
individuals or families who have a disability or who are experiencing a dislocation or
232
emergency that prevents them from providing these services for themselves or their families.
233
(b) "Residential support program" includes [providing] a program that provides a
234
supervised living environment for [persons] individuals with dysfunctions or impairments that
235
are:
236
(i) emotional;
237
(ii) psychological;
238
(iii) developmental; or
239
(iv) behavioral.
240
(c) Treatment is not a necessary component of a residential support program.
241
(d) "Residential support program" does not include:
242
(i) a recovery residence; or
243
(ii) a program that provides residential services that are performed:
244
(A) exclusively under contract with the department and provided to individuals through
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245
the Division of Services for People with Disabilities; or
246
(B) in a facility that serves fewer than four individuals.
247
[(36)] (39) (a) "Residential treatment" means a 24-hour group living environment for
248
four or more individuals unrelated to the owner or provider that offers room or board and
249
specialized treatment, behavior modification, rehabilitation, discipline, emotional growth, or
250
habilitation services for persons with emotional, psychological, developmental, or behavioral
251
dysfunctions, impairments, or chemical dependencies.
252
(b) "Residential treatment" does not include a:
253
(i) boarding school;
254
(ii) foster home; or
255
(iii) recovery residence.
256
[(37)] (40) "Residential treatment program" means a [human services program] a
257
program or facility that provides:
258
(a) residential treatment; or
259
(b) intermediate secure treatment.
260
[(38) (a) "Secure treatment" means 24-hour specialized residential treatment or care for
261
persons whose current functioning is such that they cannot live independently or in a less
262
restrictive environment.]
263
[(b) "Secure treatment" differs from residential treatment to the extent that it requires
264
intensive supervision, locked doors, and other security measures that are imposed on residents
265
with neither their consent nor control.]
266
(41) "Seclusion" means the involuntary confinement of an individual in a room or an
267
area:
268
(a) away from the individual's peers; and
269
(b) in a manner that physically prevents the individual from leaving the room or area.
270
[(39)] (42) "Social detoxification" means short-term residential services for persons
271
who are experiencing or have recently experienced drug or alcohol intoxication, that are
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272
provided outside of a health care facility licensed under Title 26, Chapter 21, Health Care
273
Facility Licensing and Inspection Act, and that include:
274
(a) room and board for persons who are unrelated to the owner or manager of the
275
facility;
276
(b) specialized rehabilitation to acquire sobriety; and
277
(c) aftercare services.
278
[(40)] (43) "Substance abuse disorder" or "substance use disorder" mean the same as
279
"substance use disorder" is defined in Section 62A-15-1202.
280
[(41)] (44) "Substance abuse treatment program" or "substance use disorder treatment
281
program" means a program:
282
(a) designed to provide:
283
(i) specialized drug or alcohol treatment;
284
(ii) rehabilitation; or
285
(iii) habilitation services; and
286
(b) that provides the treatment or services described in Subsection [(41)] (44)(a) to
287
persons with:
288
(i) a diagnosed substance use disorder; or
289
(ii) chemical dependency disorder.
290
[(42)] (45) "Therapeutic school" means a residential group living facility:
291
(a) for four or more individuals that are not related to:
292
(i) the owner of the facility; or
293
(ii) the primary service provider of the facility;
294
(b) that serves students who have a history of failing to function:
295
(i) at home;
296
(ii) in a public school; or
297
(iii) in a nonresidential private school; and
298
(c) that offers:
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(i) room and board; and
300
(ii) an academic education integrated with:
301
(A) specialized structure and supervision; or
302
(B) services or treatment related to:
303
(I) a disability;
304
(II) emotional development;
305
(III) behavioral development;
306
(IV) familial development; or
307
(V) social development.
308
[(43)] (46) "Unrelated persons" means persons other than parents, legal guardians,
309
grandparents, brothers, sisters, uncles, or aunts.
310
[(44)] (47) "Vulnerable adult" means an elder adult or an adult who has a temporary or
311
permanent mental or physical impairment that substantially affects the person's ability to:
312
(a) provide personal protection;
313
(b) provide necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or mental or other health care;
314
(c) obtain services necessary for health, safety, or welfare;
315
(d) carry out the activities of daily living;
316
(e) manage the adult's own resources; or
317
(f) comprehend the nature and consequences of remaining in a situation of abuse,
318
neglect, or exploitation.
319
[(45)] (48) (a) "Youth program" means a [nonresidential] program designed to provide
320
behavioral, substance abuse, or mental health services to minors that:
321
(i) serves adjudicated or nonadjudicated youth;
322
(ii) charges a fee for its services;
323
(iii) may [or may not] provide host homes or other arrangements for overnight
324
accommodation of the youth;
325
(iv) may [or may not] provide all or part of its services in the outdoors;
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(v) may [or may not] limit or censor access to parents or guardians; and
327
(vi) prohibits or restricts a minor's ability to leave the program at any time of the
328
minor's own free will.
329
(b) "Youth program" does not include recreational programs such as Boy Scouts, Girl
330
Scouts, 4-H, and other such organizations.
331
Section 2. Section 62A-2-106 is amended to read:
332
62A-2-106. Office responsibilities.
333
(1) Subject to the requirements of federal and state law, the office shall:
334
(a) make rules in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
335
Rulemaking Act, to establish:
336
(i) except as provided in Subsection (1)(a)(ii), basic health and safety standards for
337
licensees, that shall be limited to:
338
(A) fire safety;
339
(B) food safety;
340
(C) sanitation;
341
(D) infectious disease control;
342
(E) safety of the:
343
(I) physical facility and grounds; and
344
(II) area and community surrounding the physical facility;
345
(F) transportation safety;
346
(G) emergency preparedness and response;
347
(H) the administration of medical standards and procedures, consistent with the related
348
provisions of this title;
349
(I) staff and client safety and protection;
350
(J) the administration and maintenance of client and service records;
351
(K) staff qualifications and training, including standards for permitting experience to
352
be substituted for education, unless prohibited by law;
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(L) staff to client ratios;
354
(M) access to firearms; and
355
(N) the prevention of abuse, neglect, exploitation, harm, mistreatment, or fraud;
356
(ii) basic health and safety standards for therapeutic schools, that shall be limited to:
357
(A) fire safety, except that the standards are limited to those required by law or rule
358
under Title 53, Chapter 7, Part 2, Fire Prevention and Fireworks Act;
359
(B) food safety;
360
(C) sanitation;
361
(D) infectious disease control, except that the standards are limited to:
362
(I) those required by law or rule under Title 26, Utah Health Code, or Title 26A, Local
363
Health Authorities; and
364
(II) requiring a separate room for clients who are sick;
365
(E) safety of the physical facility and grounds, except that the standards are limited to
366
those required by law or rule under Title 53, Chapter 7, Part 2, Fire Prevention and Fireworks
367
Act;
368
(F) transportation safety;
369
(G) emergency preparedness and response;
370
(H) access to appropriate medical care, including:
371
(I) subject to the requirements of law, designation of a person who is authorized to
372
dispense medication; and
373
(II) storing, tracking, and securing medication;
374
(I) staff and client safety and protection that permits the school to provide for the direct
375
supervision of clients at all times;
376
(J) the administration and maintenance of client and service records;
377
(K) staff qualifications and training, including standards for permitting experience to
378
be substituted for education, unless prohibited by law;
379
(L) staff to client ratios;
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(M) access to firearms; and
381
(N) the prevention of abuse, neglect, exploitation, harm, mistreatment, or fraud;
382
(iii) procedures and standards for permitting a licensee to:
383
(A) provide in the same facility and under the same conditions as children, residential
384
treatment services to a person 18 years old or older who:
385
(I) begins to reside at the licensee's residential treatment facility before the person's
386
18th birthday;
387
(II) has resided at the licensee's residential treatment facility continuously since the
388
time described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(A)(I);
389
(III) has not completed the course of treatment for which the person began residing at
390
the licensee's residential treatment facility; and
391
(IV) voluntarily consents to complete the course of treatment described in Subsection
392
(1)(a)(iii)(A)(III); or
393
(B) (I) provide residential treatment services to a child who is:
394
(Aa) [12 years old or older] at least 12 years old or, as approved by the office, younger
395
than 12 years old; and
396
(Bb) under the custody of the Department of Human Services, or one of its divisions;
397
and
398
(II) provide, in the same facility as a child described in Subsection (1)(a)(iii)(B)(I),
399
residential treatment services to a person who is:
400
(Aa) at least 18 years old, but younger than 21 years old; and
401
(Bb) under the custody of the Department of Human Services, or one of its divisions;
402
(iv) minimum administration and financial requirements for licensees;
403
(v) guidelines for variances from rules established under this Subsection (1);
404
(vi) ethical standards, as described in Subsection 78B-6-106(3), and minimum
405
responsibilities of a child-placing agency that provides adoption services and that is licensed
406
under this chapter;
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(vii) what constitutes an "outpatient treatment program" for purposes of this chapter;
408
(viii) a procedure requiring a licensee to provide an insurer the licensee's records
409
related to any services or supplies billed to the insurer, and a procedure allowing the licensee
410
and the insurer to contact the Insurance Department to resolve any disputes;
411
(ix) a protocol for the office to investigate and process complaints about licensees;
412
[and]
413
(x) a procedure for [licensees to report incidents;] a licensee to:
414
(A) report the use of a restraint or seclusion within one business day after the day on
415
which the use of the restraint or seclusion occurs; and
416
(B) report a critical incident within one business day after the day on which the
417
incident occurs;
418
(xi) guidelines for the policies and procedures described in Sections 62A-2-123 and
419
62A-2-124;
420
(xii) a procedure for the office to review and approve the policies and procedures
421
described in Sections 62A-2-123 and 62A-2-124; and
422
(xiii) a requirement that each human services program publicly post information that
423
informs an individual how to submit a complaint about a human services program to the office;
424
(b) enforce rules relating to the office;
425
(c) issue licenses in accordance with this chapter;
426
(d) if the United States Department of State executes an agreement with the office that
427
designates the office to act as an accrediting entity in accordance with the Intercountry
428
Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L. No. 106-279, accredit one or more agencies and persons to
429
provide intercountry adoption services pursuant to:
430
(i) the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L. No. 106-279; and
431
(ii) the implementing regulations for the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, Pub. L.
432
No. 106-279;
433
(e) make rules to implement the provisions of Subsection (1)(d);
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(f) conduct surveys and inspections of licensees and facilities in accordance with
435
Section 62A-2-118;
436
(g) collect licensure fees;
437
(h) notify licensees of the name of a person within the department to contact when
438
filing a complaint;
439
(i) investigate complaints regarding any licensee or human services program;
440
(j) have access to all records, correspondence, and financial data required to be
441
maintained by a licensee;
442
(k) have authority to interview any client, family member of a client, employee, or
443
officer of a licensee;
444
(l) have authority to deny, condition, revoke, suspend, or extend any license issued by
445
the department under this chapter by following the procedures and requirements of Title 63G,
446
Chapter 4, Administrative Procedures Act;
447
(m) electronically post notices of agency action issued to a human services program,
448
with the exception of a foster home, on the office's website, in accordance with Title 63G,
449
Chapter 2, Government Records Access and Management Act; and
450
(n) upon receiving a local government's request under Section 62A-2-108.4, notify the
451
local government of new human services program license applications, except for foster
452
homes, for human services programs located within the local government's jurisdiction.
453
(2) In establishing rules under Subsection (1)(a)(ii)(G), the office shall require a
454
licensee to establish and comply with an emergency response plan that requires clients and staff
455
to:
456
(a) immediately report to law enforcement any significant criminal activity, as defined
457
by rule, committed:
458
(i) on the premises where the licensee operates its human services program;
459
(ii) by or against its clients; or
460
(iii) by or against a staff member while the staff member is on duty;
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(b) immediately report to emergency medical services any medical emergency, as
462
defined by rule:
463
(i) on the premises where the licensee operates its human services program;
464
(ii) involving its clients; or
465
(iii) involving a staff member while the staff member is on duty; and
466
(c) immediately report other emergencies that occur on the premises where the licensee
467
operates its human services program to the appropriate emergency services agency.
468
Section 3. Section 62A-2-118 is amended to read:
469
62A-2-118. Administrative inspections.
470
(1) (a) [The] Subject to Subsection (1)(b), the office may, for the purpose of
471
ascertaining compliance with this chapter, enter and inspect on a routine basis the facility of a
472
licensee.
473
(b) (i) The office shall enter and inspect a congregate care program at least once each
474
calendar quarter.
475
(ii) At least two of the inspections described in Subsection (1)(b)(i) shall be
476
unannounced.
477
(c) If another government entity conducts an inspection that is substantially similar to
478
an inspection conducted by the office, the office may conclude the inspection satisfies an
479
inspection described in Subsection (1)(b).
480
(2) Before conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the office shall, after
481
identifying the person in charge:
482
(a) give proper identification;
483
(b) request to see the applicable license;
484
(c) describe the nature and purpose of the inspection; and
485
(d) if necessary, explain the authority of the office to conduct the inspection and the
486
penalty for refusing to permit the inspection as provided in Section 62A-2-116.
487
(3) In conducting an inspection under Subsection (1), the office may, after meeting the
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requirements of Subsection (2):
489
(a) inspect the physical facilities;
490
(b) inspect and copy records and documents;
491
(c) interview officers, employees, clients, family members of clients, and others; and
492
(d) observe the licensee in operation.
493
(4) An inspection conducted under Subsection (1) shall be during regular business
494
hours and may be announced or unannounced.
495
(5) The licensee shall make copies of inspection reports available to the public upon
496
request.
497
(6) The provisions of this section apply to on-site inspections and do not restrict the
498
office from contacting family members, neighbors, or other individuals, or from seeking
499
information from other sources to determine compliance with this chapter.
500
Section 4. Section 62A-2-120 is amended to read:
501
62A-2-120. Background check -- Direct access to children or vulnerable adults.
502
(1) As used in this section:
503
(a) (i) "Applicant" means:
504
(A) the same as that term is defined in Section 62A-2-101;
505
(B) an individual who is associated with a licensee and has or will likely have direct
506
access to a child or a vulnerable adult;
507
(C) an individual who provides respite care to a foster parent or an adoptive parent on
508
more than one occasion;
509
(D) a department contractor;
510
(E) a guardian submitting an application on behalf of an individual, other than the child
511
or vulnerable adult who is receiving the service, if the individual is 12 years [of age] old or
512
older and resides in a home, that is licensed or certified by the office, with the child or
513
vulnerable adult who is receiving services; or
514
(F) a guardian submitting an application on behalf of an individual, other than the child
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or vulnerable adult who is receiving the service, if the individual is 12 years [of age] old or
516
older and is a person described in Subsection (1)(a)(i)(A), (B), (C), or (D).
517
(ii) "Applicant" does not mean an individual, including an adult, who is in the custody
518
of the Division of Child and Family Services or the Division of Juvenile Justice Services.
519
(b) "Application" means a background screening application to the office.
520
(c) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Identification within the Department of
521
Public Safety, created in Section 53-10-201.
522
(d) "Incidental care" means occasional care, not in excess of five hours per week and
523
never overnight, for a foster child.
524
(e) "Personal identifying information" means:
525
(i) current name, former names, nicknames, and aliases;
526
(ii) date of birth;
527
(iii) physical address and email address;
528
(iv) telephone number;
529
(v) driver license or other government-issued identification;
530
(vi) social security number;
531
(vii) only for applicants who are 18 years [of age] old or older, fingerprints, in a form
532
specified by the office; and
533
(viii) other information specified by the office by rule made in accordance with Title
534
63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act.
535
(2) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (13), an applicant or a representative shall
536
submit the following to the office:
537
(i) personal identifying information;
538
(ii) a fee established by the office under Section 63J-1-504; and
539
(iii) a disclosure form, specified by the office, for consent for:
540
(A) an initial background check upon submission of the information described under
541
this Subsection (2)(a);
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(B) ongoing monitoring of fingerprints and registries until no longer associated with a
543
licensee for 90 days;
544
(C) a background check when the office determines that reasonable cause exists; and
545
(D) retention of personal identifying information, including fingerprints, for
546
monitoring and notification as described in Subsections (3)(d) and (4).
547
(b) In addition to the requirements described in Subsection (2)(a), if an applicant
548
resided outside of the United States and its territories during the five years immediately
549
preceding the day on which the information described in Subsection (2)(a) is submitted to the
550
office, the office may require the applicant to submit documentation establishing whether the
551
applicant was convicted of a crime during the time that the applicant resided outside of the
552
United States or its territories.
553
(3) The office:
554
(a) shall perform the following duties as part of a background check of an applicant:
555
(i) check state and regional criminal background databases for the applicant's criminal
556
history by:
557
(A) submitting personal identifying information to the bureau for a search; or
558
(B) using the applicant's personal identifying information to search state and regional
559
criminal background databases as authorized under Section 53-10-108;
560
(ii) submit the applicant's personal identifying information and fingerprints to the
561
bureau for a criminal history search of applicable national criminal background databases;
562
(iii) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family Services'
563
Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006;
564
(iv) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Aging and Adult Services'
565
vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section 62A-3-311.1;
566
(v) search the juvenile court records for substantiated findings of severe child abuse or
567
neglect described in Section 78A-6-323; and
568
(vi) search the juvenile court arrest, adjudication, and disposition records, as provided
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569
under Section 78A-6-209;
570
(b) shall conduct a background check of an applicant for an initial background check
571
upon submission of the information described under Subsection (2)(a);
572
(c) may conduct all or portions of a background check of an applicant, as provided by
573
rule, made by the office in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
574
Rulemaking Act:
575
(i) for an annual renewal; or
576
(ii) when the office determines that reasonable cause exists;
577
(d) may submit an applicant's personal identifying information, including fingerprints,
578
to the bureau for checking, retaining, and monitoring of state and national criminal background
579
databases and for notifying the office of new criminal activity associated with the applicant;
580
(e) shall track the status of an approved applicant under this section to ensure that an
581
approved applicant is not required to duplicate the submission of the applicant's fingerprints if
582
the applicant applies for:
583
(i) more than one license;
584
(ii) direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult in more than one human services
585
program; or
586
(iii) direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult under a contract with the department;
587
(f) shall track the status of each license and each individual with direct access to a child
588
or a vulnerable adult and notify the bureau within 90 days after the day on which the license
589
expires or the individual's direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult ceases;
590
(g) shall adopt measures to strictly limit access to personal identifying information
591
solely to the individuals responsible for processing and entering the applications for
592
background checks and to protect the security of the personal identifying information the office
593
reviews under this Subsection (3);
594
(h) as necessary to comply with the federal requirement to check a state's child abuse
595
and neglect registry regarding any individual working in a congregate care [setting that serves
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children] program, shall:
597
(i) search the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family Services'
598
Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006; and
599
(ii) require the child abuse and neglect registry be checked in each state where an
600
applicant resided at any time during the five years immediately preceding the day on which the
601
applicant submits the information described in Subsection (2)(a) to the office; and
602
(i) shall make rules, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative
603
Rulemaking Act, to implement the provisions of this Subsection (3) relating to background
604
checks.
605
(4) (a) With the personal identifying information the office submits to the bureau under
606
Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against state and regional criminal background databases
607
for the applicant's criminal history.
608
(b) With the personal identifying information and fingerprints the office submits to the
609
bureau under Subsection (3), the bureau shall check against national criminal background
610
databases for the applicant's criminal history.
611
(c) Upon direction from the office, and with the personal identifying information and
612
fingerprints the office submits to the bureau under Subsection (3)(d), the bureau shall:
613
(i) maintain a separate file of the fingerprints for search by future submissions to the
614
local and regional criminal records databases, including latent prints; and
615
(ii) monitor state and regional criminal background databases and identify criminal
616
activity associated with the applicant.
617
(d) The bureau is authorized to submit the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of
618
Investigation Next Generation Identification System, to be retained in the Federal Bureau of
619
Investigation Next Generation Identification System for the purpose of:
620
(i) being searched by future submissions to the national criminal records databases,
621
including the Federal Bureau of Investigation Next Generation Identification System and latent
622
prints; and
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623
(ii) monitoring national criminal background databases and identifying criminal
624
activity associated with the applicant.
625
(e) The Bureau shall notify and release to the office all information of criminal activity
626
associated with the applicant.
627
(f) Upon notice from the office that a license has expired or an individual's direct
628
access to a child or a vulnerable adult has ceased for 90 days, the bureau shall:
629
(i) discard and destroy any retained fingerprints; and
630
(ii) notify the Federal Bureau of Investigation when the license has expired or an
631
individual's direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult has ceased, so that the Federal Bureau
632
of Investigation will discard and destroy the retained fingerprints from the Federal Bureau of
633
Investigation Next Generation Identification System.
634
(5) (a) After conducting the background check described in Subsections (3) and (4), the
635
office shall deny an application to an applicant who, within three years before the day on which
636
the applicant submits information to the office under Subsection (2) for a background check,
637
has been convicted of any of the following, regardless of whether the offense is a felony, a
638
misdemeanor, or an infraction:
639
(i) an offense identified as domestic violence, lewdness, voyeurism, battery, cruelty to
640
animals, or bestiality;
641
(ii) a violation of any pornography law, including sexual exploitation of a minor;
642
(iii) prostitution;
643
(iv) an offense included in:
644
(A) Title 76, Chapter 5, Offenses Against the Person;
645
(B) Section 76-5b-201, Sexual Exploitation of a Minor; or
646
(C) Title 76, Chapter 7, Offenses Against the Family;
647
(v) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
648
(vi) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
649
(vii) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302;
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(viii) identity fraud crime, as described in Section 76-6-1102; or
651
(ix) a felony or misdemeanor offense committed outside of the state that, if committed
652
in the state, would constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsections (5)(a)(i)
653
through (viii).
654
(b) If the office denies an application to an applicant based on a conviction described in
655
Subsection (5)(a), the applicant is not entitled to a comprehensive review described in
656
Subsection (6).
657
(c) If the applicant will be working in a program serving only adults whose only
658
impairment is a mental health diagnosis, including that of a serious mental health disorder,
659
with or without co-occurring substance use disorder, the denial provisions of Subsection (5)(a)
660
do not apply, and the office shall conduct a comprehensive review as described in Subsection
661
(6).
662
(6) (a) The office shall conduct a comprehensive review of an applicant's background
663
check if the applicant:
664
(i) has an open court case or a conviction for any felony offense, not described in
665
Subsection (5)(a), with a date of conviction that is no more than 10 years before the date on
666
which the applicant submits the application;
667
(ii) has an open court case or a conviction for a misdemeanor offense, not described in
668
Subsection (5)(a), and designated by the office, by rule, in accordance with Title 63G, Chapter
669
3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, if the conviction is within three years before the day
670
on which the applicant submits information to the office under Subsection (2) for a background
671
check;
672
(iii) has a conviction for any offense described in Subsection (5)(a) that occurred more
673
than three years before the day on which the applicant submitted information under Subsection
674
(2)(a);
675
(iv) is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for any offense
676
described in Subsection (5)(a);
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(v) has a listing in the Department of Human Services, Division of Child and Family
678
Services' Licensing Information System described in Section 62A-4a-1006;
679
(vi) has a listing in the Department of Human Services, Division of Aging and Adult
680
Services' vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation database described in Section
681
62A-3-311.1;
682
(vii) has a record in the juvenile court of a substantiated finding of severe child abuse
683
or neglect described in Section 78A-6-323;
684
(viii) has a record of an adjudication in juvenile court for an act that, if committed by
685
an adult, would be a felony or misdemeanor, if the applicant is:
686
(A) under 28 years [of age] old; or
687
(B) 28 years [of age] old or older and has been convicted of, has pleaded no contest to,
688
or is currently subject to a plea in abeyance or diversion agreement for a felony or a
689
misdemeanor offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
690
(ix) has a pending charge for an offense described in Subsection (5)(a); or
691
(x) is an applicant described in Subsection (5)(c).
692
(b) The comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a) shall include an
693
examination of:
694
(i) the date of the offense or incident;
695
(ii) the nature and seriousness of the offense or incident;
696
(iii) the circumstances under which the offense or incident occurred;
697
(iv) the age of the perpetrator when the offense or incident occurred;
698
(v) whether the offense or incident was an isolated or repeated incident;
699
(vi) whether the offense or incident directly relates to abuse of a child or vulnerable
700
adult, including:
701
(A) actual or threatened, nonaccidental physical, mental, or financial harm;
702
(B) sexual abuse;
703
(C) sexual exploitation; or
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(D) negligent treatment;
705
(vii) any evidence provided by the applicant of rehabilitation, counseling, psychiatric
706
treatment received, or additional academic or vocational schooling completed;
707
(viii) the applicant's risk of harm to clientele in the program or in the capacity for
708
which the applicant is applying; and
709
(ix) any other pertinent information presented to or publicly available to the committee
710
members.
711
(c) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a), the
712
office shall deny an application to an applicant if the office finds that approval would likely
713
create a risk of harm to a child or a vulnerable adult.
714
(d) At the conclusion of the comprehensive review described in Subsection (6)(a), the
715
office may not deny an application to an applicant solely because the applicant was convicted
716
of an offense that occurred 10 or more years before the day on which the applicant submitted
717
the information required under Subsection (2)(a) if:
718
(i) the applicant has not committed another misdemeanor or felony offense after the
719
day on which the conviction occurred; and
720
(ii) the applicant has never been convicted of an offense described in Subsection
721
(14)(c).
722
(e) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
723
office may make rules, consistent with this chapter, to establish procedures for the
724
comprehensive review described in this Subsection (6).
725
(7) Subject to Subsection (10), the office shall approve an application to an applicant
726
who is not denied under Subsection (5), (6), or [(13)] (14).
727
(8) (a) The office may conditionally approve an application of an applicant, for a
728
maximum of 60 days after the day on which the office sends written notice to the applicant
729
under Subsection (12), without requiring that the applicant be directly supervised, if the office:
730
(i) is awaiting the results of the criminal history search of national criminal background
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databases; and
732
(ii) would otherwise approve an application of the applicant under Subsection (7).
733
(b) The office may conditionally approve an application of an applicant, for a
734
maximum of one year after the day on which the office sends written notice to the applicant
735
under Subsection (12), without requiring that the applicant be directly supervised if the office:
736
(i) is awaiting the results of an out-of-state registry for providers other than foster and
737
adoptive parents; and
738
(ii) would otherwise approve an application of the applicant under Subsection (7).
739
(c) Upon receiving the results of the criminal history search of a national criminal
740
background database, the office shall approve or deny the application of the applicant in
741
accordance with Subsections (5) through (7).
742
(9) A licensee or department contractor may not permit an individual to have direct
743
access to a child or a vulnerable adult unless, subject to Subsection (10):
744
(a) the individual is associated with the licensee or department contractor and:
745
(i) the individual's application is approved by the office under this section;
746
(ii) the individual's application is conditionally approved by the office under
747
Subsection (8); or
748
(iii) (A) the individual has submitted the background check information described in
749
Subsection (2) to the office;
750
(B) the office has not determined whether to approve the applicant's application; and
751
(C) the individual is directly supervised by an individual who has a current background
752
screening approval issued by the office under this section and is associated with the licensee or
753
department contractor;
754
(b) (i) the individual is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
755
(ii) the individual has a current background screening approval issued by the office
756
under this section;
757
(iii) one of the following circumstances, that the office has not yet reviewed under
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Subsection (6), applies to the individual:
759
(A) the individual was charged with an offense described in Subsection (5)(a);
760
(B) the individual is listed in the Licensing Information System, described in Section
761
62A-4a-1006;
762
(C) the individual is listed in the vulnerable adult abuse, neglect, or exploitation
763
database, described in Section 62A-3-311.1;
764
(D) the individual has a record in the juvenile court of a substantiated finding of severe
765
child abuse or neglect, described in Section 78A-6-323; or
766
(E) the individual has a record of an adjudication in juvenile court for an act that, if
767
committed by an adult, would be a felony or a misdemeanor as described in Subsection (5)(a)
768
or (6); and
769
(iv) the individual is directly supervised by an individual who:
770
(A) has a current background screening approval issued by the office under this
771
section; and
772
(B) is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
773
(c) the individual:
774
(i) is not associated with the licensee or department contractor; and
775
(ii) is directly supervised by an individual who:
776
(A) has a current background screening approval issued by the office under this
777
section; and
778
(B) is associated with the licensee or department contractor;
779
(d) the individual is the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian of the
780
vulnerable adult;
781
(e) the individual is approved by the parent or guardian of the child, or the guardian of
782
the vulnerable adult, to have direct access to the child or the vulnerable adult;
783
(f) the individual is only permitted to have direct access to a vulnerable adult who
784
voluntarily invites the individual to visit; or
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(g) the individual only provides incidental care for a foster child on behalf of a foster
786
parent who has used reasonable and prudent judgment to select the individual to provide the
787
incidental care for the foster child.
788
(10) An individual may not have direct access to a child or a vulnerable adult if the
789
individual is prohibited by court order from having that access.
790
(11) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an individual for whom the
791
office denies an application may not have direct access to a child or vulnerable adult unless the
792
office approves a subsequent application by the individual.
793
(12) (a) Within 30 days after the day on which the office receives the background
794
check information for an applicant, the office shall give notice of the clearance status to:
795
(i) the applicant, and the licensee or department contractor, of the office's decision
796
regarding the background check and findings; and
797
(ii) the applicant of any convictions and potentially disqualifying charges and
798
adjudications found in the search.
799
(b) With the notice described in Subsection (12)(a), the office shall also give the
800
applicant the details of any comprehensive review conducted under Subsection (6).
801
(c) If the notice under Subsection (12)(a) states that the applicant's application is
802
denied, the notice shall further advise the applicant that the applicant may, under Subsection
803
62A-2-111(2), request a hearing in the department's Office of Administrative Hearings, to
804
challenge the office's decision.
805
(d) In accordance with Title 63G, Chapter 3, Utah Administrative Rulemaking Act, the
806
office shall make rules, consistent with this chapter:
807
(i) defining procedures for the challenge of the office's background check decision
808
described in Subsection (12)(c); and
809
(ii) expediting the process for renewal of a license under the requirements of this
810
section and other applicable sections.
811
(13) An individual or a department contractor who provides services in an adults only
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substance use disorder program, as defined by rule, is exempt from this section. This
813
exemption does not extend to a program director or a member, as defined by Section
814
62A-2-108, of the program.
815
(14) (a) Except as provided in Subsection (14)(b), in addition to the other requirements
816
of this section, if the background check of an applicant is being conducted for the purpose of
817
giving clearance status to an applicant seeking a position in a congregate care [facility]
818
program, an applicant for a one-time adoption, an applicant seeking to provide a prospective
819
foster home, or an applicant seeking to provide a prospective adoptive home, the office shall:
820
(i) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each applicant resided
821
in the five years immediately preceding the day on which the applicant applied to be a foster
822
parent or adoptive parent, to determine whether the prospective foster parent or prospective
823
adoptive parent is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or supported finding of child
824
abuse or neglect; and
825
(ii) check the child abuse and neglect registry in each state where each adult living in
826
the home of the applicant described in Subsection (14)(a)(i) resided in the five years
827
immediately preceding the day on which the applicant applied to be a foster parent or adoptive
828
parent, to determine whether the adult is listed in the registry as having a substantiated or
829
supported finding of child abuse or neglect.
830
(b) The requirements described in Subsection (14)(a) do not apply to the extent that:
831
(i) federal law or rule permits otherwise; or
832
(ii) the requirements would prohibit the Division of Child and Family Services or a
833
court from placing a child with:
834
(A) a noncustodial parent under Section 62A-4a-209, 78A-6-307, or 78A-6-307.5; or
835
(B) a relative, other than a noncustodial parent, under Section 62A-4a-209, 78A-6-307,
836
or 78A-6-307.5, pending completion of the background check described in Subsection (5).
837
(c) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (9), the office shall deny a clearance to an
838
applicant seeking a position in a congregate care [facility] program, an applicant for a one-time
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839
adoption, an applicant to become a prospective foster parent, or an applicant to become a
840
prospective adoptive parent if the applicant has been convicted of:
841
(i) a felony involving conduct that constitutes any of the following:
842
(A) child abuse, as described in Section 76-5-109;
843
(B) commission of domestic violence in the presence of a child, as described in Section
844
76-5-109.1;
845
(C) abuse or neglect of a child with a disability, as described in Section 76-5-110;
846
(D) endangerment of a child or vulnerable adult, as described in Section 76-5-112.5;
847
(E) aggravated murder, as described in Section 76-5-202;
848
(F) murder, as described in Section 76-5-203;
849
(G) manslaughter, as described in Section 76-5-205;
850
(H) child abuse homicide, as described in Section 76-5-208;
851
(I) homicide by assault, as described in Section 76-5-209;
852
(J) kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301;
853
(K) child kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-301.1;
854
(L) aggravated kidnapping, as described in Section 76-5-302;
855
(M) human trafficking of a child, as described in Section 76-5-308.5;
856
(N) an offense described in Title 76, Chapter 5, Part 4, Sexual Offenses;
857
(O) sexual exploitation of a minor, as described in Section 76-5b-201;
858
(P) aggravated arson, as described in Section 76-6-103;
859
(Q) aggravated burglary, as described in Section 76-6-203;
860
(R) aggravated robbery, as described in Section 76-6-302; or
861
(S) domestic violence, as described in Section 77-36-1; or
862
(ii) an offense committed outside the state that, if committed in the state, would
863
constitute a violation of an offense described in Subsection (14)(c)(i).
864
(d) Notwithstanding Subsections (5) through (9), the office shall deny a license or
865
license renewal to a prospective foster parent or a prospective adoptive parent if, within the five
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866
years immediately preceding the day on which the individual's application or license would
867
otherwise be approved, the applicant was convicted of a felony involving conduct that
868
constitutes a violation of any of the following:
869
(i) aggravated assault, as described in Section 76-5-103;
870
(ii) aggravated assault by a prisoner, as described in Section 76-5-103.5;
871
(iii) mayhem, as described in Section 76-5-105;
872
(iv) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37, Utah Controlled Substances Act;
873
(v) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37a, Utah Drug Paraphernalia Act;
874
(vi) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37b, Imitation Controlled Substances
875
Act;
876
(vii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37c, Utah Controlled Substance
877
Precursor Act; or
878
(viii) an offense described in Title 58, Chapter 37d, Clandestine Drug Lab Act.
879
(e) In addition to the circumstances described in Subsection (6)(a), the office shall
880
conduct the comprehensive review of an applicant's background check pursuant to this section
881
if the registry check described in Subsection (14)(a) indicates that the individual is listed in a
882
child abuse and neglect registry of another state as having a substantiated or supported finding
883
of a severe type of child abuse or neglect as defined in Section 62A-4a-1002.
884
Section 5. Section 62A-2-123 is enacted to read:
885
62A-2-123. Congregate care program regulation.
886
(1) A congregate care program may not use a cruel, severe, unusual, or unnecessary
887
practice on a child, including:
888
(a) a strip search unless the congregate care program determines and documents that a
889
strip search is necessary to protect an individual's health or safety;
890
(b) a body cavity search unless the congregate care program determines and documents
891
that a body cavity search is necessary to protect an individual's health or safety;
892
(c) inducing pain to obtain compliance;
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893
(d) hyperextending joints;
894
(e) peer restraints;
895
(f) discipline or punishment that is intended to frighten or humiliate;
896
(g) requiring or forcing the child to take an uncomfortable position, including squatting
897
or bending;
898
(h) for the purpose of punishing or humiliating, requiring or forcing the child to repeat
899
physical movements or physical exercises such as running laps or performing push-ups;
900
(i) spanking, hitting, shaking, or otherwise engaging in aggressive physical contact;
901
(j) denying an essential program service;
902
(k) depriving the child of a meal, water, rest, or opportunity for toileting;
903
(l) denying shelter, clothing, or bedding;
904
(m) withholding personal interaction, emotional response, or stimulation;
905
(n) prohibiting the child from entering the residence;
906
(o) abuse as defined in Section 78A-6-105; and
907
(p) neglect as defined in Section 78A-6-105.
908
(2) Before a congregate care program may use a restraint or seclusion, the congregate
909
care program shall:
910
(a) develop and implement written policies and procedures that:
911
(i) describe the circumstances under which a staff member may use a restraint or
912
seclusion;
913
(ii) describe which staff members are authorized to use a restraint or seclusion;
914
(iii) describe procedures for monitoring a child that is restrained or in seclusion;
915
(iv) describe time limitations on the use of a restraint or seclusion;
916
(v) require immediate and continuous review of the decision to use a restraint or
917
seclusion;
918
(vi) require documenting the use of a restraint or seclusion;
919
(vii) describe record keeping requirements for records related to the use of a restraint or
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920
seclusion;
921
(viii) to the extent practicable, require debriefing the following individuals if debriefing
922
would not interfere with an ongoing investigation, violate any law or regulation, or conflict
923
with a child's treatment plan:
924
(A) each witness to the event;
925
(B) each staff member involved; and
926
(C) the child who was restrained or in seclusion.
927
(ix) include a procedure for complying with Subsection (5); and
928
(x) provide an administrative review process and required follow up actions after a
929
child is restrained or put in seclusion; and
930
(b) consult with the office to ensure that the congregate care program's written policies
931
and procedures align with industry standards and applicable law.
932
(3) A congregate care program:
933
(a) may use a passive physical restraint only if the passive physical restraint is
934
supported by a nationally or regionally recognized curriculum focused on non-violent
935
interventions and de-escalation techniques;
936
(b) may not use a chemical or mechanical restraint unless the office has authorized the
937
congregate care program to use a chemical or mechanical restraint;
938
(c) shall ensure that a staff member that uses a restraint on a child is:
939
(i) properly trained to use the restraint; and
940
(ii) familiar with the child and if the child has a treatment plan, the child's treatment
941
plan; and
942
(d) shall train each staff member on how to intervene if another staff member fails to
943
follow correct procedures when using a restraint.
944
(4) (a) A congregate care program:
945
(i) may use seclusion if:
946
(A) the purpose for the seclusion is to ensure the immediate safety of the child or
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947
others; and
948
(B) no less restrictive intervention is likely to ensure the safety of the child or others;
949
and
950
(ii) may not use seclusion:
951
(A) for coercion, retaliation, or humiliation; or
952
(B) due to inadequate staffing or for the staff's convenience.
953
(b) While a child is in seclusion, a staff member who is familiar to the child shall
954
actively supervise the child for the duration of the seclusion.
955
(5) Subject to the office's review and approval, a congregate care program shall
956
develop:
957
(a) suicide prevention policies and procedures that describe:
958
(i) how the congregate care program will respond in the event a child exhibits
959
self-injurious, self-harm, or suicidal behavior;
960
(ii) warning signs of suicide;
961
(iii) emergency protocol and contacts;
962
(iv) training requirements for staff, including suicide prevention training;
963
(v) procedures for implementing additional supervision precautions and for removing
964
any additional supervision precautions;
965
(vi) suicide risk assessment procedures;
966
(vii) documentation requirements for a child's suicide ideation and self-harm;
967
(viii) special observation precautions for a child exhibiting warning signs of suicide;
968
(ix) communication procedures to ensure all staff are aware of a child who exhibits
969
warning signs of suicide;
970
(x) a process for tracking suicide behavioral patterns; and
971
(xi) a post-intervention plan with identified resources; and
972
(b) based on state law and industry best practices, policies and procedures for
973
managing a child's behavior during the child's participation in the congregate care program.
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(6) A congregate care program:
975
(a) when not otherwise prohibited by law, shall facilitate weekly confidential
976
communication between a child and the child's parents, guardian, foster parents, and siblings,
977
as applicable;
978
(b) shall ensure that the communication described in Subsection (6)(a) complies with
979
the child's treatment plan, if any; and
980
(c) may not use family contact as an incentive for proper behavior or withhold family
981
contact as a punishment.
982
Section 6. Section 62A-2-124 is enacted to read:
983
62A-2-124. Human services program non-discrimination.
984
A human services program:
985
(1) shall perform an individualized assessment when classifying and placing an
986
individual in programs and living environments; and
987
(2) subject to the office's review and approval, shall create policies and procedures that
988
include:
989
(a) a description of what constitutes sex and gender based abuse, discrimination, and
990
harassment;
991
(b) procedures for preventing and reporting abuse, discrimination, and harassment; and
992
(c) procedures for teaching effective and professional communication with individuals
993
of all sexual orientations and genders.